Energy Environment Pune University MCQs
Energy Environment Pune University MCQs
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Renewable Resources”.
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply
Answer: d
Explanation: Renewable energy often relies on the weather for its sources of power. Hydro generators need rain to fill dams and thereby provide electricity. Wind turbines need wind to turn the blades. Solar collectors need clear skies and sunshine.
2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect
Answer: a
Explanation: The photovoltaic effect was first discovered in 1839 by Edmond Becquerel. The hotovoltaic effect is a process that generates voltage or electric current in a photovoltaic cell when it is exposed to sunlight.
3. Wood is a renewable resource.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Wood is a renewable resource. Trees can be replanted and grown to maturity in place of those that are cut down. When the trees are replanted at the same rate as they are cut down, wood will be a renewable resource. Rainforests are said to be non-renewable because they take thousands of years to re-grow.
4. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear power
Answer: a
Explanation: Dams are used for power generation. The reservoir water is stored at a higher level than the turbines, which are housed in a power station. The dam feed water directly to the turbines in the power station.
5. The main composition of biogas is _______________
a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: Biogas is one of the types of bio fuel that is produced from the decomposition of organic waste. Biogas is known as the environmentally-friendly energy source since it is converting organic waste into energy. The composition of biogas is as follows: – Methane 50-75%, Carbon dioxide 25-50%, Nitrogen 0-10%, Hydrogen 0-1%.
6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
a) Human Resource Development
b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Health and Family Welfare
Answer: c
Explanation: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop renewable energy for supplementing the energy requirements of India. It is headquartered in Lodhi Road, New Delhi.
7. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind power having capacity 29000 MW holds 56.8%, Solar power having capacity 9500 MW holds 18.5%, Biomass power having capacity 8200 MW holds 16%, Small Hydro power having capacity 4400 MW holds 8.5%.
8. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________
a) Cochin, Kerala
b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
Answer: a
Explanation: Cochin International airport, the fourth-largest airport in India in terms of international traffic, now runs entirely on solar power. Cochin International Airport became the world’s first fully solar powered airport on 18 August 2015.
9. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Large hydro
Answer: d
Explanation: According to a recent survey large hydro installed capacity was 44.41 GW. The large hydro is administered separately by the Ministry of Power and not included in Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
10. Where is the largest Wind Farm located in India?
a) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
b) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu
c) Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d) Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra
Answer: b
Explanation: Muppandal Wind Farm produces 1500 MW of current capacity. Muppandal Wind Farm is the second largest onshore wind farm in the world. This Wind Farm supplies power to many regions in Tamil Nadu.
11. Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: No, Nuclear Energy is not a Renewable Energy. Nuclear Energy is produced in Nuclear power plant. Nuclear power plant uses uranium as nuclear fuel to generate electricity during the nuclear fission reaction. Uranium is a finite resource, so we can’t consider the nuclear energy produced by uranium in a nuclear reactor as a renewable energy source.
12. Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”?
a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development
c) Indian Agricultural Development
d) Indian Biotechnology Development
Answer:a
Explanation: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency established in 1987 as Non-Banking Financial Institution. It is engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects which are relating to new and renewable sources of energy.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Non Renewable Resources”.
1. A non-renewable resource is a finite resource.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A non-renewable resource does not renew itself or which can’t be regenerated after it is used. If we have used it once, we will not be able to reuse or recycle it for the second time. Some of the examples of non-renewable resources are Earth minerals, fossil fuels etc.
2. Which of the below theory is related to non-renewable resources?
a) Game Theory
b) Phlogiston Theory
c) Big Bang Theory
d) Hotelling’s Theory
Answer: d
Explanation: This theory is proposed by Harold Hotelling. This theory states that owners of non-renewable resources will only produce a supply of their product if it will yield more value when compared to other financial instruments available to them on market like bonds and interest bearing securities.
3. Bill Gates, Chairman of the Board for Terra Power Company is associated in which of the following non-renewable resources?
a) Earth minerals
b) Fossil fuels
c) Nuclear energy
d) Metal ores
Answer: c
Explanation: Terra Power is a nuclear energy technology company based in Bellevue, Washington. It works to raise global living standards by creating new forms of energy. The primary technology of this company is Traveling wave reactor. It activities are in the fields of nuclear energy and related sciences, which are yielding significant innovations in the safety and economics of nuclear power and hybrid-energy.
4. The below schematic diagram represents which life cycle?
energy-management-questions-answers-non-renewable-resources-q4
a) Carbon Life Cycle
b) Earth minerals Life Cycle
c) Phosphorus Life Cycle
d) Fossil Fuel Life Cycle
Answer: d
Explanation: In the Fossil Fuel Life Cycle various processes take place. Raw material, its discovery and extraction followed by the combustion of the raw material in order to generate necessary energy. While generating energy many harmful particles release to the atmosphere causing pollution.
5. The primary composition of coal is _______________
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b
Explanation: Coal is a naturally found fossil fuel formed by the anaerobic decay of plant life taking place over millions of years. It is extracted from the underground by coal mining. The primary composition of coal is carbon while nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen comes under secondary composition.
6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for refining, distribution, import, export of petroleum products and natural gas in India?
a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
b) Ministry of Fossil Fuel
c) Ministry of Non-Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Oil
Answer: a
Explanation: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop the exploration and exploitation of petroleum resources for supplementing the energy requirements of India. At present the ministry is headed by the Cabinet Minister Dharmendra Pradhan .
7. Where is the first oil well drilled in Asia?
a) Karachi, Pakistan
b) Assam, India
c) Tokyo, Japan
d) Kandy, Sri Lanka
Answer: b
Explanation: Oil deposits were first discovered in Assam-Arrakan Basin at Digboi in 1889. In 1901, Asia’s first oil refinery was set at Digboi in Assam. Digboi is the oldest oil well operating in India. In order to look after the oil business in this area, Assam Oil Company was formed in 1899.
8. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____________
a) Coal
b) Natural Gas
c) Petroleum
d) Oil
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. There are different forms of coal available they are, 1) Peat: Peat is produced by the decaying of plants in swamps. 2) Bituminous: It derives its name after liquid called bitumen. 3) Lignite: This form is used to produce electricity. 4) Anthracite: It has more than 90% carbon content per kg and it is the best quality coal.
9. Which of the following nonrenewable energy is not classified under a fossil fuel?
a) Nuclear
b) Petroleum
c) Oil
d) Natural gas
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear energy is not a fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are based on materials that, a very long time ago were living animal or trees. Uranium used as fuel in nuclear power plants was never a living thing, thus Nuclear energy is not classified under fossil fuel.
10. The major non-renewable energy usage in India is___________
a) Coal
b) Petroleum and other liquids
c) Natural gas
d) Nuclear
Answer: a
Explanation: Around 50% of India’s commercial energy demand is met through the country’s vast coal reserves. Coal is cheaper than petroleum. For industrial progress cheap energy is necessity for this coal comes into picture. Due to huge presence of coal reserve it remains as the most important source of energy usage in India.
11. Natural gas is a non-renewable energy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, natural gas is a non-renewable energy. It takes millions of years to form once it is converted into energy. Natural gas is used as a fuel for vehicles. It is found in deep underground rock and some of them are found in coal beds.
12. How many Nuclear power stations are there in India?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 7 nuclear power stations are here in India they are, 1) Tarapur having total capacity of 1400 MW, 2) Rawatbhata having total capacity of 1180 MW, 3) Kudankulam having total capacity of 2000MW, 4) Kaiga having total capacity of 880 MW, 5) Kakrapar having total capacity of 440 MW, 6) Kalpakkam having total capacity of 440 MW, 7) Narora having total capacity of 440 MW.
This set of Energy Management Questions & Answers for Exams focuses on “Mineral Resources of India”.
1. Which Indian state is the largest producer of gold?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Goa
Answer: a
Explanation: Karnataka is the largest producer of gold in India. The Kolar Gold Fields which is located in Kolar which was one of the largest producers of gold in India was shut down. Presently there are two main gold mines located in Karnataka they are Hutti and Raichur gold mines which produce almost 84% of India’s gold.
2. For the policy level guidelines for mineral sector, which policy is formed?
a) National Resources Policy
b) National Mineral Policy
c) National Regulation Policy
d) National Legislation Policy
Answer: b
Explanation: National Mineral Policy was started in 1993. The main aim of this policy is liberalization of the mining sector and to encouraging the flow of investment especially in private investment and mining. In the 2008 reform it address in the areas of mining sector.
3. According to 2012 survey India is the largest producer of _____________
a) Iron ore
b) Bauxite
c) Sheet mica
d) Manganese ore
Answer: c
Explanation: The largest producer of sheet mica is India. India is the third largest producer of iron ore. India is the fifth largest producer of bauxite in the world. India is the seventh largest producer of manganese ore in the world.
4. India is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: India is the largest producer and exporter of mica. India accounts for almost 60% of the net mica production in the whole world. India export mica to many countries like Japan, United States of America, United Kingdom and many more countries.
5. Which state in India is the largest producer of diamond ores?
a) Karnataka
b) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan
d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: d
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is the only state in India which produce diamond. The unit used to measure diamond is Carats. Diamond is classified under non-metallic mineral. The largest project of diamond in India is the Bunder project which is located in Madhya Pradesh.
6. The copper production in India to that of world’s production is about_________%
a) 10%
b) 2%
c) 0.5%
d) 0.2%
Answer: d
Explanation: Copper production in India is just about 0.2% in the world. But still, in the production rate it is still within the top 20 countries in the world. Copper mining production is about 0.2% but refined copper production is 4% of word’s production.
7. The state which is having largest deposit of thorium in India is_________
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Jharkhand
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: d
Explanation: In India thorium is located in a contiguous belt of eastern coastal states. Andhra Pradesh accounts 31% of total thorium occurrence, whereas Tamil Nadu has 21%, Kerala has 16%, and Jharkhand has 2% of total thorium occurrence in India.
8. Which state is largest producer of chromite ore in India?
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Orissa
Answer: d
Explanation: India accounts 18% of the world’s chromite resources. In India largest resources of chromite is found in the Orissa state. Orissa has above 95% of the total chromite ore resource found in India. Karnataka is the second largest producer of chromite in India.
9. The term ‘Rat hole mining’ is used in which mining?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Coal
d) Copper
Answer: c
Explanation: Rat hole mining is used in coal mining because of the sizes of holes. This type of mining is carried out in the state Meghalaya. In this type, mining is done by digging small holes into the ground like holes dug by rats. This type of mining is generally done illegal.
10. The position of India in terms of production of Aluminium is________
a) 4th
b) 3rd
c) 2nd
d) 1st
Answer: a
Explanation: India stands 4th position in the aluminium production in the world. China stands 1st position in the aluminium production in the world. Russia in 2nd place. Canada stands in 3rd place. The aluminium production in India is around 2750 tonnes.
11. Steel is a mineral.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: No, Steel is not a mineral. Minerals are the naturally occurring substances which are usually solid or inorganic which is obtained from mining. But steel is an alloy of iron and other elements and steel don’t exist in natural rock.
12. Kudremukh hills which is known for iron ore deposit is situated in ____________
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Goa
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b
Explanation: Kudremukh which is known as an iron ore mining town is located in Chikkamagaluru district in Karnataka state. The government runs an iron ore company known as Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Energy Production & Consumption”.
1. Where does India stand on solar energy production?
a) First
b) Third
c) Fifth
d) Seventh
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on total PV installed capacity India ranks seventh in the solar production which is stated by International Energy Agency . First position is taken by China, third by Germany, fifth by Italy and seventh by India with the total production of 9000 MW.
2. India’s position in the Global Wind Energy Council is_________
a) fourth
b) third
c) second
d) first
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Global Wind Energy Council in 2016 India ranked fourth in the Global Wind Power Installed Capacity Index with cumulative installed wind power generation. This gives the capacity of 28700 MW with the world’s share of around 6%.
3. Which country leads in the production of biofuel in the world?
a) United States of America
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Argentina
Answer: a
Explanation: The United States is the largest producer of biofuel in the world, accounting to 42% of global biofuel production. The United States produced 31 metric tons of oil equivalents, while Brazil which stands second in the production of biofuel produced 18 million metric tons of oil equivalents.
4. India is placed within the top 25 nations, in terms of oil production in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: India stands in the 24th position in terms of oil production in the world. The total amount of oil produced in India is 734,180 Barrel per day . Whereas the first three place go to Russia, Saudi Arabia and United States respectively.
5. The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are known for the production of ___________
a) Coal
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Petroleum
Answer: d
Explanation: The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are the seven states in Arab which border the Persian Gulf, namely Iraq, Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE. All these Arab states have significant production of petroleum. There GDP is highly depending on the production of petroleum.
6. India stands in the first position, in the production of coal in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: India stands second position in the production of coal in the world. China stands in the first position in the production of coal in the world. According to 2016 survey India produces 3,411 million tons of coal, whereas China produces 7,461 million tons of coal.
7. Which country produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: b
Explanation: France produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power. France accounts 75% of total electricity produced by nuclear power. India stands in the 27TH position with 306% of total electricity produced by nuclear power.
8. Total primary energy consumption of fuel in the world is lead by ___________
a) Coal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) Oil
Answer: d
Explanation: Consumption of primary energy of fuel in the world is lead by oil with the consumption of 33%. The consumption of coal is 30%. The consumption of Nuclear is 4%. The consumption of hydro is 7%.
9. India’s energy consumption growth in 2016 is_________
a) 3.6%
b) 4.6%
c) 2.9%
d) 1.5%
Answer: b
Explanation: Many countries energy consumption has seriously slowed overed few years. But India is managed to increased its consumption growth. One of the main reason for the increase in energy consumption growth in India is the decision took for continued to support world energy consumption.
10. Which is the world’s biggest oil consuming country?
a) United States of America
b) Japan
c) India
d) China
Answer: a
Explanation: The United States is the largest consumer of oil in the world, accounting 20% of global oil production. The United States consumed 18.5 million barrels of oil per day, while Japan stands third, India in fourth place and China in second place.
11. State true or false. Nordic countries consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Nordic countries are the countries which are situated in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. The Nordic countries generate only moderate emission levels of greenhouse gases compared to other developed countries. This is related to their lower dependency on fossil fuels. However, their consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in the world.
12. The world’s top consuming country of domestically produced hydroelectricity is ___________
a) India
b) Brazil
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: c
Explanation: China is the largest consumption of hydroelectricity in the world. It consumed 163 million tonnes of oil-equivalent which is of 6.7% of its total energy consumption. India consumes 25 mtoe, Brazil consumes 90 mtoe, Japan consumes 19 mtoe.
13. India stands first position in the consumption of electricity in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: India stands third position in the consumption of electricity in the world. China stands in the first position in the consumption of electricity in the world. According to 2016 survey India consumes 1,408,624,400,000 KiloWatt Hours per year.
14. India’s total primary energy consumption is ____________
a) 24.3 BTU
b) 19.01 BTU
c) 120 BTU
d) 30.1 BTU
Answer: a
Explanation: According to 2014 estimation India’s total primary energy consumption is 24.3 BTU, China consumes 120 BTU, Japan consumes 19.01 BTU, Russia consumes 30.1 BTU. India’s energy consumption is increasing exponentially due to the large population of the country.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Deforestation”.
1. What is the cause of discoloration in fresh water?
a) Fungal bloom
b) Viral bloom
c) An algae bloom
d) Bacterial bloom
Answer: c
Explanation: Algae blooms are the most common problems encountered by fresh water bodies like lake and pond. Certain forms of algae may harbor toxins. By mechanical and physical intervention we can keep the fresh water clean and clear.
2. The Great Smog in 1952 caused in which city?
a) Delhi
b) Lahore
c) London
d) New York
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1952 severe air pollution caused in London. It combined with an anticyclone cold weather, windless conditions and collected air borne pollutants which are raised from the use of coal. This is one of the clear example of deforestation and lack of fresh air.
3. In which forest we can see deforestation to large extent?
a) Atlantic forest
b) Amazon forest
c) Borneo forest
d) Sumatra forest
Answer: b
Explanation: According to World Wildlife report Amazon forest is the region where we can see more number of deforestation than any other region. Amazon forest which is the world’s largest forest is also the site of the biggest projected loss due to deforestation.
4. Due to deforestation the pure air that we intake became less in its availability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The air humans and other animals consume is oxygen. Trees release oxygen when they use energy from sunlight to male glucose from carbon dioxide and water. But due to deforestation there is a lack of trees which thereby reduced the air production and this also cause increase in carbon dioxide level.
5. The biggest driver of deforestation is_______________
a) Agriculture
b) Forest fire
c) Volcanic activities
d) Soil erosion
Answer: a
Explanation: The biggest driver of deforestation is Agriculture. This is due to, farmers cut forests to provide more space for planting crops. The other reason is grazing livestock. The process of burning of trees by cutting them is known as slash agriculture.
6. The best way to reduce deforestation is by_________________
a) Using more paper
b) Clear more area of trees to grow plant
c) Burning forest in order to create cultivated land
d) Clear more area of plants to grow trees
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to reduce deforestation we need to make sure it is possible only by growing more number of trees. The large trees will make dense forest and by this only we can able to avoid deforestation. All the other options create deforestation.
7. Due to deforestation how much fields worth of trees is lost per minute?
a) 12 football
b) 24 football
c) 36 football
d) 48 football
Answer: c
Explanation: According to World Wildlife Fund about 36 football fields worth of trees lost every minute. It’s due to various reasons like agriculture, for logging, for bio fuels, for the construction of roads, mining etc.
8. Rain forest land is most often cleared for___________
a) Pasture
b) Forest fire
c) Human activities
d) High pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: In rain forest land is majorly losing its land due to human activities. Large areas of rain forest are being cut down often in order to remove just a few logs. Rain forest is being destroyed at double the rate than ever. There is a very high rate of extinction.
9. The main cause of wildfire is____________
a) Volcanic activity
b) Lightening
c) Pollution
d) Human activity
Answer: d
Explanation: Human beings are the number one cause of wildfires. Many of these wildfires are caused by cigarette butts being left on the land. Some of the man made causes of wildfires are, burning debris, arson, equipment failure, unattended campfires.
10. Which nation is most affected by deforestation?
a) Honduras
b) Indonesia
c) Benin
d) Ghana
Answer: a
Explanation: Honduras is the nation which is most affected by deforestation. In Honduras, 37% of forest land is lost due to deforestation. Whereas Indonesia, Benin and Ghana saw a decline of 26%, 31%, 28% respectively.
11. Deforestation is a good process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: No, deforestation is not a good process. Deforestation clears the forest area which directly effects animals and environment. Though there are some advantages of deforestation like agricultural practices and create an opportunity to graze animals. But instead of this, we can use alternative methods in order to save forest.
12. Which type of farming cause more amount of deforestation?
a) Subsistence farming
b) Commercial farming
c) Mixed farming
d) Dairy farming
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the United Nations Framework Convention on climate change, the direct cause of deforestation is agriculture. In agriculture, Subsistence farming is responsible for 48% of deforestation and commercial farming is responsible for 32%.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Dams”.
1. Based on the volume of fill which is the largest man made dam in the world?
a) Tarbela Dam
b) Fort Peck Dam
c) Ataturk Dam
d) Houtribdijk Dam
Answer: a
Explanation: Tarbela Dam is the largest man made dam in the world. This Tarbela Dam is located in Pakistan. The construction of a dam is completed in 1976. Fort Peck Dam, Ataturk Dam, Houtribdijk Dam are respectively second, third and fourth largest man made dams.
2. Temples of modern India was a term coined by ___________________
a) Subhas Chandra Bose
b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Answer: b
Explanation: Temples of modern India was coined by Jawahar Lal Nehru while inaugurating Bhakra Nangal dam to describe dams, scientific research institutes, steel plants and power plants. According to Nehru, these four are the temples of modern India.
3. The largest dam in India is____________
a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Hirakud
d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer: a
Explanation: Tehri dam is the largest dam in India. Tehri dam is located in Uttarakhand. The height of the dam is 260 mtrs. The length is 575 mtrs. Total capacity is 2,100,000. The inflow water to Tehri dam is Bhagirathi.
4. Barrage dam is used for control the amount of water passing the dam.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A barrage dam is a special kind of dam which consists of a line of large gates that can be opened or closed for the purpose of control the amount of water passing the dam. One of the examples for barrage dam is Red Bluff Diversion dam in California.
5. The earliest known dam is______________
a) Jawa Dam
b) Sadd – el – Kafara Dam
c) Great Dam of Marib
d) Roman Dam
Answer: a
Explanation: Jawa Dam is the earliest known dam. Jawa dam which is in Jordan, 100 km away from the capital Amman. This earliest built dam Jawa is a gravity dam. This dam structure is dated to 3000 BC. This Jawa dam is still in use.
6. The era of large dams was initiated with the construction of which dam?
a) Hoover Dam
b) Tarbela Dam
c) Tehri Dam
d) Aswan Low Dam
Answer: d
Explanation: The era of large dams was initiated with the construction of the Aswan Low dam. This Aswan Low dam is located in Egypt in Africa continent. This dam is built in 1902. Its is gravity masonry buttress dam on the Nile river.
7. Arch dams are first built by ______________
a) Greeks
b) Romans
c) Portuguese
d) British
Answer: b
Explanation: The Romans were the first to build arch dams. In this arch dams the reaction force stabilizes the structure from the external hydrostatic pressure. Later in 19th century British Empire builds many arch dams.
8. The tallest dam in the world is______________
a) Jinping- l – Dam
b) Nurek Dam
c) Xiaowan Dam
d) Xiluodu Dam
Answer: a
Explanation: Jinping- l – dam is the tallest dam in the world. It’s is of 305m in height. It is a concrete arch type dam. It is situated in China and the river that flows in this dam is Yalong. Nurek Dam, Xiaowan Dam and Xiluodu Dam are second, third, fourth tallest dams respectively.
9. Which of the following types of dams were widely used in the early part of the industrial revolution?
a) Steel dams
b) Timber dams
c) Coffer dams
d) Check dams
Answer: b
Explanation: Timber dams were widely used in the early part of the industrial revolution. This is due to the ease and speed of construction. Two common variations of timber dams are a crib and the plank. Both these variations have different functions.
10. Which of the following is a natural dam?
a) Tailings dam
b) Diversionary dam
c) Saddle dam
d) Volcanic dam
Answer: d
Explanation: Volcanic dams is the example for natural dam. It is formed when lava flows, often basaltic, intercept the path of a stream or lake outlet, resulting in the creation of a natural impoundment. Uinkarat volcanic field in United States is the example for volcanic dam.
11. A dry dam is designed to control flooding.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A dry dam is also known as a flood retarding structure. This dry dam is designed in such a way to control the flooding. This dry dams normally holds back no water and allows the channel to flow freely except during intense flow period.
12. The glacier blocks a river in the dam is known as________________
a) Ice dam
b) Blockage dam
c) Spilt dam
d) Isolated dam
Answer: a
Explanation: An Ice dam occurs when water builds behind a blockage of ice. Ice dams form either when ice chunks in a river and forms a lake or when ice chunks in a river are blocked by something and build up to form a dam.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Water Resources”.
1. Which is the first state in India to make roof top rain water harvesting compulsory to all the houses?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Goa
Answer: a
Explanation: Tamil Nadu is the first state in India which has made roof top rain water harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. If anyone failed to obey this, there are legal provisions to punish the defaulters. This method helps to save rain water.
2. The name given to the diversion channels of the western Himalayas is__________________
a) Phalodi
b) Johads
c) Guls or Kuls
d) Khadins
Answer: c
Explanation: The diversions channels of the western Himalaya is known as Guls or Kuls. In hills and mountains, people built diversion channels for irrigational purposes, which are called Guls and Kuls. It is mainly used in the western Himalayas for harvesting water.
3. What is Palar pani?
a) Spring
b) Milk
c) River water
d) Rain water
Answer: d
Explanation: Palar Pani is the commonly used name for rain water. This term is mainly used in Rajasthan. In Rajasthan Palar Pani means “Meetha Panni” which mainly stored and used for household works like working and drinking.
4. Mattur dam is located across Krishna river.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Mettur dam which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river. This Mettur dam provides irrigation and drinking water facilities for more than 10 districts of Tamil Nadu. Hence it plays a vital role in the farmers life.
5. Which of the following is the major source of fresh water which is available in India?
a) Ocean water
b) River water
c) Pond water
d) Ground water
Answer: d
Explanation: Ground water is the major source of fresh water in India. Ground water can’t see or can’t access easily. The important role of ground water sources play in the water cycle is that they are the primary sources for human consumption.
6. Narmada Bachao Andolan is related to____________
a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Sardar Sarovar
d) Rihand
Answer: c
Explanation: Narmada Bachao Andolan is a social movement against the large dams built across the Narmada river at Sardar Sarovar dam in Gujarat. Sardar Sarovar dam is the first focal point of the movement.
7. At what time usually rainfall is recorded in India?
a) 4 P.M.
b) 6 P.M.
c) 8 P.M.
d) 10 P.M.
Answer: c
Explanation: We can record the amount of rainfall by the device called as a rain gauge. The usual time of recording for rainfall is 8 A.M in Indian time. Different countries have different rainfall recording timings. The some total of all the measurements during the previous 24 hours is register at 8 A.M in the morning.
8. The total surface of water in the earth surface is_________________
a) 65%
b) 69%
c) 71%
d) 75%
Answer: c
Explanation: The total surface of the water in the earth surface is 71%, while the other 29% consists of Continents and Islands. The oceans hold about 96.5% of all Earth’s water. The remaining 3.5% of water is stored in other water bodies.
9. Which planet is also known as blue planet?
a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Earth
d) Mars
Answer: c
Explanation: About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered in water, which appears blue from space. Earth is known as blue planet because of its blue visibility when we see it from outer space. No other planet is having such a large amount of water this is also the reason for its blue color.
10. The rank of India in terms of water availability per person p.a in the world is_______________
a) 130th
b) 131st
c) 132nd
d) 133rd
Answer: d
Explanation: The per capita water availability in the country is reducing due to the increase in population. According to 2011 census, the average annual per capita availability of water in the country is 1545 cubic meters.
11. Krishna Raja Sagara is a dam built on river Kaveri.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Krishna Raja Sagara was popularly known as KRS. The kind of dam built is gravity dam. This dam is situated in Karnataka. The total surface area of the dam is 129 km 2 . The water released from KRS dam flows to Mettur dam which is in Tamil Nadu district.
12. Ground water is accessed by______________
a) Drilling wells
b) Drip irrigation
c) Check bunds
d) Constructing canals
Answer: a
Explanation: Ground water is commonly accessed either through a bore or well. A well is a vertical shaft which is dug into the ground. In order to drill a well we need to have a permission from the government. Government provide ‘take and use license’ in most cases.
This set of Advanced Energy Management Questions and Answers focuses on “Food Resources”.
1. Which is the major source of animal protein in the Earth?
a) Milk
b) Egg
c) Fat
d) Fish
Answer: d
Explanation: Fish is the major source of animal protein in the Earth. Fish are aquatic animals which is seen in oceans and other water bodies. It contains the high amount of proteins. Nowadays fishes are raised in fisheries.
2. Which crop provides more energy when compared to any other type of crop in the world?
a) Pulses
b) Corn
c) Cereal
d) Legumes
Answer: c
Explanation: Cereal grain is a staple food that provides more food energy than any other type of crop. All the other type of food like corns, pulses also provide energy but they don’t match the energy that is providing by cereals.
3. Among the following which is not a organic farming?
a) Compost
b) Crop rotation
c) Chemical fertilizers
d) Green manures
Answer: c
Explanation: Compost, crop rotation and green manures come under organic farming in which no chemicals are added to it. But in chemical fertilizers as the name indicates they use chemicals to raise the crops, so it is not a organic farming.
4. Fruit bearing trees are renewable food sources.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Fruit bearing trees are renewable food resources. Renewable food resources are those that may be able to sustain themselves against all the types of external harmful conditions and environmental conditions and produce year after year.
5. Apiculture means_______________
a) Rearing Silk Moths
b) Rearing Cattles
c) Rearing Horses
d) Bee Keeping
Answer: d
Explanation: The word ‘Apiculture’ comes from the Latin word ‘apis’ meaning bee. Apiculture is the care and management of honey bees for the production of honey and wax. During bee keeping certain precautionary measures are taken.
6. Pigeon pea is a good source of______________
a) Vitamins
b) Calcium
c) Proteins
d) Iron
Answer: c
Explanation: Pigeon pea is a legume from the family ‘Fabaceae’ and it is not related to bird pigeon. It is consumed in large scale in South Asia and is a major source of protein for the people. Binomial name for pigeon pea is ‘Cajanus cajan’.
7. Which is the only insect in the entire world that can produce something that we can eat?
a) Bee
b) Ant
c) Lizard
d) Cockroach
Answer: a
Explanation: Bee produces honey. Honey is the only food that includes all the substances necessary to sustain life. An average worker bee produces about 1/12th teaspoon of honey in its lifespan. Honeybee’s lifespan is about six weeks.
8. The crops which are grown in summer season are called __________________
a) Kharif crop
b) Zaid crop
c) Rabi crop
d) Multiple crop
Answer: b
Explanation: The crops which are mainly grown in the summer season is called Zaid crop. They require warm, dry weather. The main produce of Zaid crops are seasonal fruits and seasonal vegetables. This crop can be cultivable in the end of summer season.
9. The crops which are grown in winter season are called___________________
a) Kharif crop
b) Multiple crop
c) Zaid crop
d) Rabi crop
Answer: d
Explanation: Rabi crops are grown in winter season. Though it sow in winter season it is harvested only in spring season in South Asia. The major rabi crop in India is wheat followed by barely, mustard, sesame and peas. Cool temperature is required for rabi crops.
10. BT cotton is an example for_______________
a) Organic farming
b) Chemical fertilization
c) GM crop
d) Cultivation
Answer: c
Explanation: BT cotton is an example of GM crop. BT cotton which is a GM crop was developed to insect resistant by the introduction of a new gene. GM are well known as genetically modified crops. Many oppositions raised against BT crops due to customs issues.
11. Processed food is good for health.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Processes food is not good for health. It caused high blood pressure and increase the chance of type 2 diabetes. The term processed food includes any food that has been purposely changed in some way prior to consumption. It includes canned, frozen, packaged foods.
12. Sowing two or three crops together on the same land, one being the main crop and other as subsidiaries is known as___________
a) Crop rotation
b) Mixed cropping
c) Irrigation
d) Harvesting
Answer: b
Explanation: Mixed cropping means sowing two or more crops in the same land where one of them is the main crop. For example, growing of wheat and ground nut on the same field. Here nitrogen used by wheat is restored by leguminous plants, so there is no need to add nitrogenous fertilizers.
13. Growing different crops on the same land in pre planned succession is known as___________
a) Crop rotation
b) Inter cropping
c) Mixed cropping
d) Irrigation
Answer: a
Explanation: Crop rotation is the systematic or pre planned planting of different crops in a particular order over several years in the same growing space. This process helps to maintain nutrients in the soil and prevents plant diseases and removes pests from the plant.
14. India’s global ranking in banana production is______________
a) Rank 1
b) Rank 2
c) Rank 3
d) Rank 4
Answer: a
Explanation: India stands in 1st rank in the production of banana. Whereas Uganda, China and Philippines stand 2nd, 3rd and 4th rank respectively in the production of banana globally. India also stands Rank 1 in jute and mango production.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Food Security”.
1. When did the word food security came into exist?
a) 1970
b) 1972
c) 1974
d) 1976
Answer: c
Explanation: At 1974 ‘World Food Conference’ held at Rome the term food security came into existence. It was defined with an emphasis a supply. Food security is defined as an availability at the times of adequate world food supplies of basic food stuffs to sustain a steady expansion of food.
2. Coping Strategies Index is related to_______________
a) Financial statement
b) Food security measurement
c) Banking sector
d) Sales
Answer: b
Explanation: Coping Strategies Index assesses household behavior based on a set of varied established behaviors on how households cope with food shortages. CSI was developed in Uganda, Ghana and Kenya but has now been used for early warning and food security monitoring and assessment.
3. MSP stands for_________________
a) Maximum support price
b) Minimum support price
c) Marginal support price
d) Main support price
Answer: b
Explanation: Minimum support price is the price at which government purchase crops from the farmers, whatever may be the price for the crops. MSP helps to incentivize the farmers and thus ensures adequate food grains production in the country.
4. Annapurna scheme provide food requirements of____________
a) Children
b) Women
c) Senior citizens
d) Students
Answer: c
Explanation: Annapurna scheme aims at providing food security to meet the requirement for senior citizens. The Annapurna scheme has been launched with effect from 1st of April in the year 2000 to provide food to senior citizens.
5. The official document entitling the holder to a ration of food issued by the government of India is known as____________
a) Ration card
b) Food card
c) Health card
d) Insurance card
Answer: a
Explanation: Ration card is primarily used when purchasing subsidized food stuffs. This ration card has been used since second world war. India is public distribution system is based on the ration card. This ration card is used to establish identity, eligibility and entitlement.
6. The color of Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme card is______________
a) Pink
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Yellow
Answer: d
Explanation: Antyodaya Anna Yojana is a government of India sponsored scheme to provide highly subsidized food to millions of the poorest families. Antyodaya ration card also called by the name PDS yellow card because of it’s yellow color.
7. In which state ration shops are run by co-operatives in large extend?
a) Assam
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Goa
Answer: c
Explanation: Out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94% are being run by the co-operatives. The co-operatives are playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country.
8. For grain banks in different regions which society is established?
a) Academy of Development Science
b) Kissan
c) Amul
d) Food research center
Answer: a
Explanation: Academy of Development Science has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grain banks in different regions. Because of ADS grain banks are slowly taking shape in different parts of Maharashtra and in the borders of Karnataka.
9. Where can we find seasonal hunger?
a) Urban
b) Metro cities
c) Forest
d) Rural areas
Answer: d
Explanation: Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agriculture activities. It occurs in a community or society at only certain times of the year.
10. Buffer stock scheme purpose is______________
a) To save food grains from pest attack
b) To stop price fluctuations
c) To transport the food
d) To deliver the food
Answer: b
Explanation: A buffer stock scheme is an attempt to use commodity storage for the purpose of stabilizing prices in an entire economy. For example, the United States ‘Strategic Petroleum Reserve’ stores 727 million barrels of crude petroleum, which is sold during shortages.
11. Goats are the solution to global food security.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Goats are an important part of the solution to global food security because they are fairly low maintenance and easy to raise and farm when compare to other animals. The trinomial name of goat is ‘Capraaegagrus hircus’. Female goats referred as ‘does’.
12. How many pillars are there in food security according to WHO?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: According to WHO there are three pillars that determine food security. They are food availability, food access and food use. In addition to WHO, the world summit on food security stated that there are four pillars namely food availability, food access, food utilization and food stabiltity.
13. In which state of India Amul headquarter situated?
a) Kerala
b) Bihar
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
Answer: c
Explanation: Amul is an Indian dairy co-operative based at Anand in the state of Gujarat. It is founded in 1946 by Tribhuvandas Patel. Amul abbreviation stands for Anand Milk Union Limited. Amul created India’s white revolution.
14. F.C.I stands for__________________
a) Food Center of India
b) Food Center of Investigation
c) Food Complex of Integrity
d) Food Corporation of India
Answer: d
Explanation: The Food Corporation of India was setup under ‘Food Corporation Act 1964’. It established in order to fulfill the objectives of the food policy. Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management oriented food security into a stable system.
This set of Energy Management Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Adverse Effects of Modern Agriculture on Soil and Water Resources”.
1. Excessive use of macronutrients to crops leads to the deficiency of___________________
a) Micro nutrients
b) Semi nutrients
c) Mega nutrients
d) Mixed nutrients
Answer: a
Explanation: More use of macronutrients leads in the deficiency of micronutrients. Chemical fertilizers used in modern agriculture contain nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium which are macronutrients. By using fertilizers in an excess way it results in micronutrient imbalance.
2. ‘Blue Body Syndrome’ is caused due to_________________
a) Soil pollution
b) Nitrate pollution
c) Carbon pollution
d) Zinc pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: When excess nitrogenous fertilizers applied in fields it leach deep into the soil contaminating the ground water. When the concentration of nitrate in drinking water exceeds 25mg/L it leads to a fatal condition in new born babies.
3. Pest which are resistant to pesticides are known as_________________
a) Green pests
b) Multi pests
c) Super pests
d) Strong pests
Answer: c
Explanation: Pest which are resistant to pesticides are known as super pests. Some pests that survive the pesticide generate highly resistant generations that are immune to all kinds of pesticides. Such pests are known as super pests.
4. Pesticides are biodegradable.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pesticides are not biodegradable. They do not degrade naturally. They need special treatment in order to degrade. Most pesticides are non biodegradable and accumulate in the food chain. This is called bio-accumulation.
5. Water stands on land for most of the year is called as_____________
a) Salinity
b) Water loading
c) Water logging
d) Stand by water
Answer: c
Explanation: During water logging the roots of plants do not get enough air for respiration due to this strength of soil decreases and its cause for the low crop yield. Causes of water logging are heavy rain, poor drainage and not proper usage of modern agriculture system.
6. Potato famine occurred in Ireland due to pest attack on the complete crop due to monoculture, this is of using________________
a) Pesticides
b) Nitrogen
c) High yielding varieties
d) Crop rotation
Answer: c
Explanation: High yielding varieties are used in modern agriculture to produce more crop yield. HYV are irrigation and chemical fertilizers intensive. Hence by using excessive chemical fertilizers and pesticides some useful pests also gets killed.
7. Harmful and high cost pesticides can be replaced by______________
a) Weeds
b) Small animals
c) Artificial protectors
d) Natural predators
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural predator method is used to deal with pests like aphids, caterpillars and slugs. There are two important components for the use of natural predators and they are darkness and moist. These natural predators are useful for farmers.
8. Though farmers are aware that chemical fertilizers cause damage to the soil of the field they are using it because___________________
a) Output is low
b) Output is high
c) For healthy crop
d) For healthy soil
Answer: b
Explanation: Despite of harness causing to the soil and as well as to the crop farmers using chemical fertilizers over organic farming. The yield that produced is high by using chemical fertilizers and it gives resistant to pesticides for initial years for after that yield becomes less and soil lose its fertility.
9. Which of the following situation is not the effect of modern agriculture?
a) Bio magnification
b) Lost of soil fertility
c) Carbon pollution
d) Ozone depletion
Answer: d
Explanation: Ozone depletion is not the effect of modern agriculture. This ozone layer depletion takes place due to the damage in the Ozone. This may results in a slow and excruciating death of radiation. It results in the direct flow of UV rays to the Earth atmosphere.
10. Irrigation with light sodium water may damage soil structure by the formation of alkaline soil.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium requires more water layers in order to become stable. When sodium ion associated with bicarbonate and carbonate ions it causes pH to rise. This pH rise becomes harmful to soil and thereby damage the crops.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Energy Resources”.
1. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________
a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
Answer: c
Explanation: Fossil fuels are fuels because they release heat energy when they are burned. They are fossil fuels because they were formed from the remains of living organisms billions of years ago. Some of the examples of fossil fuels are coal, oil and natural gas.
2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn. This sulfur dioxide gas causes breathing problems for living creatures. Along with the health issue this sulfur dioxide which is emitted from oil also causes acid rain.
3. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________
a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
Answer: c
Explanation: The most used nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is a radioactive metal. Nuclear fuels like Uranium do not burnt to release energy. Instead, the fuels are involved in nuclear reaction in nuclear reaction in the nuclear reactor.
4. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________
a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String
Answer: a
Explanation: A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a wind turbine. Wind turbines have huge blades mounted on a tall tower. The blades are connected to a nacelle. Thus the nacelle in wind turbines helps to work the wind turbines.
5. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
Answer: b
Explanation: The water in the sea rises and falls because of waves on the surface. Wave machines use the Kinetic energy in this movement to drive electricity generators. Wave energy also known as ocean energy. Wave energy is essentially power drawn from waves.
6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________
a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a river estuary to make use of the kinetic energy in the moving water. Huge amounts of water move in and out of river mouths each day because of the tides. The barrage contains electricity generators.
7. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectricity power stations use the kinetic energy in moving water. But the water comes from behind a dam built across a river valley. The water high up behind the dam contains potential energy.
8. Solar panels generate electricity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panels do not generate electricity. They just heat up water by the external electricity connection given to them. This solar panels are often located on the roofs of the building where they can receive heat energy directly from the sun.
9. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc
Answer: c
Explanation: Nickel Cadmium cells offers along service life thereby ensuring a high degree of the economy. In the PV industry, Nickel Cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the energy storage technology from manufacturers and users of PV of grid systems.
10. How many forms of fossil fuels are there________________
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three major forms of fossil fuels they are coal, oil and natural gas. They formed from organic remains of plants and animals that were converted into coal, oil and natural gas by exposure to heat and the pressure of the earth’s crust over millions of years.
11. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air pollution causing by the burning of fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million
Answer: d
Explanation: Fossil fuels are not environmental friendly. Burning of fossil fuels result in pollution and can cause serious environmental concerns. According to WHO, 7 million premature deaths annually linked to air pollution by the fossil fuels burning.
12. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________
a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind
Answer: c
Explanation: Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by sun. Sunlight contains a large amount of energy. The Sun’s energy warms the planet’s surface, powering titanic transfers of heat and pressure in weather patterns and ocean currents.
13. SI unit for energy is_____________
a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule
Answer: d
Explanation: SI unit for energy is joule. Metric unit of measurement for energy or work equal to a force of one Newton applied through a distance of one meter. One joule is equivalent to 0.737324 ft-lbs. Joule is a SI unit of work, energy and heat.
14. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy is the heat from the earth. It’s clean and sustainable. Resources of geothermal energy range from the ground to water and hot rock. The term geothermal originates from the Greek words.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Land Resources”.
1. A continuous are of land surrounded by ocean is called__________________
a) Seashore
b) Beach
c) Landmass
d) Wetland
Answer: c
Explanation: Landmass may be often written as one word to distinguish it from the usage ‘landmass’ which means a measure of land. Landmass includes super continents, continents. Hence a land surrounded by oceans continuously is called as landmass.
2. How many major continuous landmass are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: On earth, there are four major continuous landmasses are there. They are, Afro-Rurasia, the Americans, Antarctica and Australia. A part from the above four major continuous landmasses there are many minor landmasses also present.
3. Land capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is called as________________
a) Domestic land
b) Arable land
c) Un arable land
d) Dry land
Answer: b
Explanation: Arable land is land that can be used for growing crops. Country with the most arable land in the world is United States having the share of 10.5% of the world’s arable land. India stands in the second position with the production of 9.22%.
4. Out of the total land area, how many million hectares of land suffer from degradation?
a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 225
Answer: b
Explanation: 175 million hectares of land area suffer from degradation. Land degradation is caused largely by soil erosion but also by water logging and excessive salinity. The high degree of degradation will affect the existing land resources.
5. Wearing away of a field’s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind is known as_____________
a) Wind erosion
b) Soil erosion
c) Water erosion
d) Sand erosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Along with water and wind there is one more factor that determines the soil erosion and that is through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage, erosion, whether it is by water or wind.
6. The greater the intensity and duration of a rainstorm, the higher the erosion potential.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The impact of raindrops on the soil surfaces can break down soil aggregates and disperse the aggregate material. Lighter aggregate materials such as very fine sand, silt, clay and organic matter are easily removed by raindrops.
7. Estimate of the ability of soils to resist erosion, based on the physical characteristics of each soil is known as__________________
a) Soil erodibility
b) Soil erosion
c) Soil potentiality
d) Soil neutrality
Answer: a
Explanation: Texture is the principle characteristic affecting erodibility. Generally, soils with faster infiltration rates, higher levels of organic matter and improved soil structure have a greater resistance to erosion.
8. Low lying tract of land enclosed by dikes that forms an artificial hydrological entity is known as_________________
a) Polder
b) Resign
c) Derelict
d) Catchment
Answer: a
Explanation: A polder has no connection with outside water other than through manually operated device used. There are three types of the polder. They are, Land reclaimed, flood plains and the last one is marshes.
9. In Germany marshes separated from the surrounding water by a dike are known as______________
a) Delt
b) Koogs
c) Catchment
d) Flood plains
Answer: b
Explanation: A koog is one of the types of polder found on the North Sea West of Germany. Koog is established by the construction of dykes enclosing the land which is drained to form marshland. Koog is protected by embankments known as dykes.
10. Hydroponics is a technique of growing crops without__________________
a) Water
b) Air
c) Soil
d) Sunlight
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants in a soil less medium, or an aquatic based environment. Hydroponics is a subset of hydro culture. Hydroponic growing uses mineral nutrient solutions to feed the plants.
11. The land which is abandoned and declared as not good for cultivation anymore is known as_____________
a) Polder
b) Koogs
c) Derelict land
d) Catchment land
Answer: c
Explanation: Derelict land is the land that has become damaged by industrial or other development and beyond uses without any kind of treatment. The treatments that is given for derelict land are demolition and levelling.
12. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called as_______________
a) Mineral
b) Soil
c) Sand
d) Chemical fertilizers
Answer: b
Explanation: Soil is the material found on the surface of the earth that is composed of organic and inorganic material. Soil varies in its composition and the structure of its particles. Soil is a vital important to the sustainability of an ecosystem.
13. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain is known as__________________
a) Landform
b) Landslide
c) Deforestation
d) Deformation
Answer: b
Explanation: During landslides huge masses of land slide down destroying anything in its path. Various development activities like construction of dams, reservoirs, roads require large space which results in deforestation. This activity increases chances of landslides.
14. Process of conversion of productive land to arid or semi arid lands is known as________________
a) Deforestation
b) Deformation
c) Landform
d) Desertification
Answer: d
Explanation: Desertification is classified into two types, moderate desertification in which 10 to 25% drop in productivity and one more is serious desertification in which there is more than a 50% drop in the productivity. This desertification leads to depletion of ground water.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Structure and Functions of an Ecosystem”.
1. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Phosphorous cycle
c) Sulfur cycle
d) Nitrogen cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: Phosphorous cycle is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem. It is also a biogeochemical cycles but here atmosphere does not play a significant role in the movement of the phosphorous cycle.
2. Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as ________________
a) Food web
b) Energy cycle
c) Food chain
d) Biological system
Answer: c
Explanation: Food chain is a pathway that represents the exchange of energy from one organism to another. Energy is transmitted all the way from Sun to the other organisms by passing from producers to the consumers.
3. The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is _______________
a) Tundra
b) Temperate grassland
c) Desert
d) Tropical rain forest
Answer: d
Explanation: A Tropical rain forest has more kinds of trees than any other area in the world. Seventy percent of the plants in the rainforest are trees. There are many distinct layers of trees. These layers have been identified as the emergent upper, canopy, understory and forest floor.
4. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recovered after some time if damaging effect stops will be having ____________________
a) High stability and high resilience
b) High stability and low resilience
c) Low stability and low resilience
d) Low stability and high resilience
Answer: d
Explanation: In any ecosystem the condition of low stability and high resilience makes it to damage easily and after a certain amount of time they recover from damaging effects. Hence both stability and resilience play an important role in ecosystem.
5. Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem are inverted.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem is erect. It is the graphical representation which depicts the number of organisms, biomass and productivity at each tropic level. All ecological pyramids begin at the bottom with the producer and goes into the upper level.
6. In ecosystem standing crop refers to________________
a) All the green plants
b) All the non living materials
c) All living and dead animals
d) All the living materials both animals and plants
Answer: d
Explanation: Standing crop is the amount of total biomass present in an ecosystem. This is the amount of total living matter. There is no circulation in standing crop. In standing crop continuous synthesis and consumption of biomass are going on.
7. Which ecosystem produce the highest annual net primary productivity?
a) Tropical evergreen forest
b) Tropical rain forest
c) Tropical deciduous forest
d) Temperate evergreen forest
Answer: b
Explanation: Tropical rain forest produce mean NPP of 2200(g/m 2 /yr) the world NPP is 37.4. Tropical rain forest produce mean biomass of 45(Kg/m 2 ) and the world biomass is 763. Hence tropical rain forest ecosystem produces the highest annual net primary productivity.
8. What flows through the ecosystem while matter cycles within them?
a) Energy
b) Force
c) Pressure
d) Wind
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecosystem maintains themselves by cycling energy and nutrients obtained from external sources. At the first tropic level, primary producers are solar energy to produce organic plant material through photosynthesis.
9. Total primary production in an ecosystem is known as____________________
a) Gross final production
b) Gross primary production
c) Gross middle production
d) Net primary production
Answer: b
Explanation: The total amount of productivity in a region is gross primary productivity. Primary productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances.
10. Which type of ecosystem accounts for most of the net primary productivity on earth even though it has a low average net primary productivity?
a) Tropical rain forest
b) Desert
c) Tropical evergreen forest
d) Oceans
Answer: d
Explanation: The open oceans account for most of the net primary productivity on the planet even though they have one of the lowest average net primary productivities which cover by far the most area on earth.
11. Generally ecosystem consists of how many basic components?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally ecosystems consist of two basic components, they are abiotic and biotic components. Abiotic components include basic inorganic and organic compounds. Biotic components include producers, consumers and decomposers.
12. The three functional components interact with each other to form__________________
a) Environmental succession
b) Environmental depression
c) Environmental system
d) Ecology
Answer: c
Explanation: The three functional components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents, organism and energy input forms environmental system. An ecosystem is a functional and life sustaining environmental system.
13. The dominant second tropic level in a lake ecosystem is_____________________
a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooplankton
c) Plankton
d) Benthos
Answer: b
Explanation: Lake ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic components. Zooplanktons are the organisms that have animal like traits. Most of them are heterotrophy in nature. Zooplankton is a vital component of fresh water food webs.
14. Green plants are the most important organisms for an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Green plants form the basis for the sustainability and long term health of the environmental system. Green plant removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and generates oxygen required for breathing for other organisms include humans.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Producers”.
1. Consumer for food that feeds on producers are known as_____________________
a) Carnivores
b) Consumers
c) Herbivores
d) Producers
Answer: c
Explanation: Animals that eat only plants are called as herbivores. Plants are called producers because they are able to use light energy from the sun to produce food from carbon dioxide and water. Herbivores are also known as primary consumers.
2. The food chain from grass to hawk and again it comes back to grass with the help of fungi. In the above explain food chain, what is grass?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Energy source
Answer: a
Explanation: Green is a producer. It is a self sustaining organism that obtains its energy directly from sun. In the process, grass introduces few new organic substances into the food chain and grass plays a key role for consumers.
3. The process in which green plants and few organisms use sunlight to synthesize nutrients is known_________________
a) Chemosynthesis
b) Photosynthesis
c) Food chain
d) Food web
Answer: b
Explanation: Photoautotroph’s are the organisms involves in photosynthesis. It uses energy from sun to convert water from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air into glucose. Glucose provides energy to plants and is used to make cellulose which is used to build cell walls.
4. The process of making food by certain microbes create energy by some chemical reactions is known as_______________________
a) Photosynthesis
b) Food chain
c) Chemosynthesis
d) Hetrosynthesis
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemoautotrophy is the organism which produces chemosynthesis. It uses energy from chemical reactions to make food. The chemical reactions are usually between methane with oxygen. Carbon dioxide is the main source of carbon for chemoautotrophy.
5. The grass is a produces.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Grass is a producer because it generates its own food and gets energy from the sun. Grass photosynthesizes and acts as food to other animals. It is also produced and takes in carbon dioxide by releasing oxygen.
6. The food chain level in autotrophy is_____________
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
Answer: a
Explanation: All food chains start with autotrophy which is a producer. Autotrophs are eaten by herbivores, organisms that consume plants. Herbivores are the second tropic level. Carnivores and omnivores are secondary consumers.
7. Autotrophic bacteria that produce food through chemosynthesis have also been found at places on the seafloor called_____________________
a) Cold seeps
b) Hot seeps
c) Coral seeps
d) Warm seeps
Answer: a
Explanation: A cold seep also called as cold vent. It is an area of the ocean floor where hydrogen sulfide, methane and other liquids leak out of the earth’s crust in the form of brine pool. Cold seeps form a biome which supporting several native species.
8. Most types of algae are classified as producers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the algae are classified as producers within an ecosystem because they are able to produce their own food. Any plant or organism that can produce its own food through inorganic compounds is known as producers.
9. What makes plant producers?
a) Plants produce their own food
b) Plants depend on other organisms for food
c) Plants are decomposers
d) Plants do not require any energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Plants produce their own food. They do this by using light energy from the sun, carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil to produce food in the form of glucose. The overall process is called as photosynthesis.
10. The producers within an underwater ecosystem are called as_____________________
a) Phytoplankton
b) Autoplankton
c) Hectoplankton
d) Semiplankton
Answer: a
Explanation: Phytoplankton is like any other type of plant who changes the sun’s energy into food and they also provide oxygen to their fish friends. Along with phytoplankton seaweed and kelp are also ocean producers.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Consumers”.
1. What does a primary consumer eat?
a) Plants
b) Decomposers
c) Small animals
d) Large animals
Answer: a
Explanation: Primary consumers are always herbivores, or organisms that only eat autotrophic plants. This primary consumer gets energy by eating plants. For example, rabbit which is a primary consumer eat grass and other herbivorous plants to get energy.
2. On what category consumers are classified into?
a) Herbivore
b) Carnivore
c) Omnivore
d) Herbivore, carnivore, omnivore and scavenger
Answer: d
Explanation: Consumers can be classified into herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and as well as a scavenger. Most of the primary consumer is herbivore, secondary and tertiary consumers are carnivore. Quaternary are omnivores.
3. What is called for an organism that feeds on other organisms?
a) Insects
b) Consumer
c) Producer
d) Herbivore
Answer: b
Explanation: Consumers feed on producers or other consumers to gain their energy. The consumers are the animals that receive energy from the producers. Consumers are who feed on the lower level in the food chain.
4. How many types of consumers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of consumers they are, primary followed by secondary and tertiary. Primary consumers consume primary producers. Secondary consumers eat primary consumers. Tertiary consumers are the top predators of an ecosystem.
5. To which category ‘Hawk’ can be classified?
a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
d) Quaternary consumer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tertiary consumer is a third level consumer. It is at the third level of energy transfer. An example for this is hawk. Lizard which are primary consumer. This lizard is eat by deer and this deer is eaten by hawk. Hence hawk is a tertiary consumer.
6. All plants are herbivores.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are few carnivorous or insectivorous plants. Carnivorous plants have the adoptions to low nutrient environments. These plants obtain some nutrients by trapping and digesting various invertebrates.
7. To which classification predators are classified?
a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
d) Tertiary producer
Answer: c
Explanation: A predator is an animal that eats other animals and the prey is an animal that gets eaten by the predator. Example for predator is hawk. Hawk which eats frog, frog which eats grasshopper and grasshopper which eats grass.
8. What is another name for tertiary consumers?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Herbivores
d) Apex predators
Answer: d
Explanation: Apex predators are usually stood at the top in the food chain. It is capable of feeding on secondary consumers and primary consumers. Apex predators affect prey species population dynamics. Thus tertiary consumers sometimes also known as apex predators.
9. How many types of secondary consumers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary consumers are sorted into two groups namely, carnivores and omnivores. Carnivores only eat meat or other animals flesh. Snakes are the examples of carnivorous secondary consumers. Omnivores eat both plants as well as animals, example is bear.
10. What is the food habitant of secondary consumers?
a) Feed on primary consumers
b) Depends on tertiary consumers
c) Produce their own energy
d) Eat dead animals
Answer: a
Explanation: Secondary consumers eat primary consumers for energy. It can’t generate its own energy. Tertiary consumers depend on secondary consumers for energy and thereby secondary consumer is the source for tertiary consumers.
11. In the following tropic levels of plants followed by rabbit flowed by fox. Here fox belongs to______________
a) Primary producer
b) Primary consumers
c) Secondary producers
d) Secondary consumers
Answer: d
Explanation: In the above tropic levels plants are primary producers and it belongs to first tropic level. Rabbit eat primary producers and it belongs to the second tropic level which is primary consumers. Fox which eat rabbit is secondary consumer.
12. A consumer that feeds on other animals are known as carnivores.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A carnivore us an animal that gets food by killing other animals. Carnivores generally eat flesh meat. Carnivores along with omnivores are important is ecosystem because, they keep other herbivorous species from getting over population in a particular area.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Decomposers”.
1. From where does the decomposer receive energy?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Self generation
d) Organic substrates
Answer: a
Explanation: Decomposers receive energy by using organic substrates to get their energy, nutrients for development and growth. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead and decaying organisms. Similar to herbivores and predators, decomposers are also heterotrophic.
2. How many major groups classified in decomposers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Decomposers can be classified into two group namely, fungi and detritivores. Fungi break down deceased organism. While detritivores are responsible for consuming large particles off the deceased organism.
3. Which are known as most recognized players in the food chain and energy puramid?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Detritivores
Answer: c
Explanation: Decomposers are the most recognized players in the food chain and energy pyramid. They are the only players that have direct access to the energy which is stored in plants that comes from direct sunlight. It help in decay and in the conversion of remains of plants animals to carbon dioxide and energy.
4. What is called for an organism which breakdown dead or waste matter into simpler substances?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Insects
d) Consumers
Answer: a
Explanation: Decomposers breakdown dead plant and animals. Decomposers are very important for any ecosystem. If decomposers doesn’t exist then the plants would not get essential nutrients and even dead and waste matter would pile up.
5. The primary decomposers of most dead plant material are____________________
a) Algae
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Insects
Answer: c
Explanation: Fungi play a major role as decomposers and recycles in the wide variety of habitants in which they exist. They release nitrogen and phosphorous from decaying matter. In fungi we can see digestion precedes ingestion.
6. Decomposers and detritivores are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Though both feeds on the same diet and both are heterotrophic they both are not same. Decomposer is a general term while detritivores are the classification of decomposers. Decomposers break down the dead organisms through decomposition, while detritivores consume the decaying organisms.
7. In polypore which species caused poisoning in several plants?
a) Ganoderma lucidum coll
b) Trametes versicolor
c) Hapslopilus nidulans
d) Piptoporous betulinus
Answer: c
Explanation: Polypores from the Hapslopilus nidulans species caused poisoning in severe people which effects kidney dysfunction and also caused problems to central nervous system functions. Hapalopilus nidulans belongs to the family of ‘Polyporaceae’.
8. What is the mode of nutrition in fungi?
a) Saprophytic
b) Heterotrophic
c) Autotrophic
d) Mixotrophic
Answer: a
Explanation: Saprophytic feeds non living organic matter by secreting digestive enzymes and absorbing the products. The mode of nutrition seen in fungi is of saprophytic. Saprophytic type of nutrition means break down dead organic matter into compost and manure by the action of enzymes.
9. To which category shelf fungi classified?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Insects
Answer: c
Explanation: Shelf fungi also called as bracket fungi that forms shelf like sporophores. They grow on trees in a stack. They attack and digest the trunk and branches of a tree. Few shelf fungi can parasitize living trees causing eventual death of the tree.
10. What is called for the symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a vascular plant?
a) Thallus
b) Mycelium
c) Fungal mantle
d) Mycorrhizae
Answer: d
Explanation: Mycorrhizae form a network of filaments that associate with plant roots and draw nutrients from the soil. It helps increase plants nutrients uptake. In return, the plant supplies the fungi with photosynthesis products for their metabolic use.
11. What is called for a symbiotic relationship of fungus with an alga?
a) Lichens
b) Thallus
c) Mycelium
d) Funga
Answer: a
Explanation: Lichen is a symbiotic organism which is associated of fungi and algae. It is often found as white or yellow patches on old walls and thereby destroy the strength of it. Lichen is an example of mutualism.
12. Gold can be decomposed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the definition of decomposers which states that, ‘It is an organism that decomposes, or breaks down organic material’. But gold is not an organic material. Gold do not decompose in the sense that it either rots or withers away.
13. In order to form compost which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria?
a) Plant wastes
b) Kitchen wastes
c) Plastic and polythene wastes
d) Bodies of dead animals
Answer: c
Explanation: Bacteria cannot convert plastic and polythene to compost. Composting is a way to treat solid waste so that microorganisms break down the organic material. The composting process requires organic waste such as leaves, fruits and vegetables scraps.
14. Which is the most important group of decomposer?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Insects
d) Enzyme
Answer: a
Explanation: Bacteria begin the process of decomposition shortly after the death of an organic life form, it may be plant or animal. Bacteria that live in the body usually in the digestive tract start the decomposition process in animals.
This set of Energy Management Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Energy Flow in the Ecosystem”.
1. What is called for the process of breaking down food to yield energy?
a) Oxidation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Cellular respiration
d) Decomposition
Answer: c
Explanation: Catabolism is a metabolic process in cellular respiration that uses oxygen and energy to break down nutrients. It creates the waste through an oxidation process with free chemical energy, which is used to help create the waste.
2. What are called for an organisms which get energy by eating dead organisms?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Consumers
d) Herbivores
Answer: a
Explanation: Decomposers are an organism that break down chemicals from wastes and dead organisms. In return, it gives important materials to the soil and water. This is the last stop of the food chain.
3. Which among the following is a product of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Carbon
c) Monoxide
d) Nitrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: Photosynthesis is a process to harvest energy from light. The energy is converted to biomass. Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide and water combine them in the presence of energy from the sun to make food.
4. What is called for an organism that eats both plants and animals?
a) Omnivore
b) Carnivore
c) Decomposers
d) Herbivore
Answer: a
Explanation: Some animals eat both plants and animals they are called omnivores. Omnivores include mammals and birds. It is very easy for omnivore to find food because they eat both plants and animals. They are opportunistic eaters.
5. Why energy flow is linear in an ecosystem?
a) Because it flows in air medium
b) Because it is very particular
c) Because ecosystem is linear
d) Because energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher one
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy flow is unidirectional because energy flows from one trophic level to next higher one. One more reason is when there is energy flow some energy lost as heat at each step. This is according to 10% energy transfer law.
6. Energy flow is cyclic
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy flow is a natural process that has energy associated with the movement. The energy is passed from one organism to another in the food chain but unlike water and few elements like nitrogen and carbon, energy doesn’t return in a cycle.
7. Flow of nutrients is___________________________
a) Unidirectional
b) Rectangular
c) Cyclic
d) Triangular
Answer: c
Explanation: Nutrients flows in a cyclic form. This is because to create a balance of nutrients in different resources of the environment. These nutrients even if used are restored by these biogeochemical cycles. The flow of nutrients from abiotic factor to biotic factors helped by biogeochemical cycles.
8. Why plants in forests do not make use of all the light energy available to them?
a) Because plants do not require energy
b) Because plants are grown only in the winter season
c) Because of the absence of chlorophyll
d) Because sunlight doesn’t fall on the leaves fully
Answer: d
Explanation: All plants require light energy in order to obtain energy. This energy is providing by sun known as ultimate source of energy. When sun light falls on the plants in the dense forest due to its shady branches of big trees which forms canopy.
9. Which form of Sun’s energy is trapped by the producers in the energy flow?
a) Light energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Wind energy
d) Pressure energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The potential for light to perform work is called as light energy. Here light from sun enters the plants and there it creates energy with the help of chlorophyll. This chlorophyll is a green pigment present in all green plants to trap light energy.
10. How many percents of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Answer: a
Explanation: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost through heat as it transfers along each level. The reason for this is when energy is transferred energy is lost. This is according to second law of thermodynamics.
11. Into how many areas the energy that is received by organisms during energy transfer is converted?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The energy that is received during energy transfer which is received by organisms is converted onto three different areas. The three areas are, a)Net Consumer Productivity, b)Metabolic Energy, c) Organic Waste.
12. There is always a loss of some energy as heat during energy flows through an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: At each trophic level about 90% of the energy is lost. It is called as ‘Ten Percent Law’, which was introduced by Lindeman in 1942. According to this law, during the transfer of energy from organic food from one tropic level to the next, only 10% of the energy from organic matter is stored as flesh.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Ecological Succession”.
1. How many types of ecological succession are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of ecological succession they are primary succession, secondary succession and cyclic succession. Primary succession occurs when a new land is formed which provide habitant to colonized for first time. In secondary succession there is a recolonized in a previously occupied area.
2. What is called for the term used to express a community in its final stage of succession?
a) End community
b) Final community
c) Climax community
d) Dark community
Answer: c
Explanation: The term climax community is used to express a community in its final stage of succession. The climax community may change if there are changed in climate or long term evolutionary changes in species.
3. What is called for the term in which all the living organisms that occupy an area undergoing primary succession in the beginning stages?
a) Climax community
b) Settled community
c) Dense community
d) Pioneer community
Answer: d
Explanation: When succession occurs in any particular area smaller species such as bacteria, fungi are usually first to come in. These first organisms that settle an area make up the pioneer community. These pioneer communities later lead to biological succession.
4. What is called for the process when older communities of plants and animals are replaced by newer communities?
a) Evolution
b) Deforestation
c) Forestation
d) Ecological succession
Answer: d
Explanation: Ecological succession can be defined as changing sequence of communities that live in an ecosystem during a given time period. The actual species involved in a succession in a particular area can control by geology, climate, soil type and other environmental factors.
5. Which process occurs after a volcanic eruption?
a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Oxidation
Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary succession refers to the concept of an ecosystem reviving itself after all has been destroyed. In an area where a volcano erupts the lava inside cause damage to the plant and tree life. If the land which was affected by volcanic eruption and not covered in new volcanic rock, roots or plants parts in soil could renew.
6. Species diversity hurts ecological succession.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Species diversity does not contribute for ecological succession. The diversity among the species is high at pioneer community. However as time passed competition and interaction causes a significant drop in species diversity.
7. Soil changes due to erosion is an example of which of the following succession?
a) Allogenic succession
b) Autogenic succession
c) Computational succession
d) Emigrational succession
Answer: a
Explanation: Succession driven by the abiotic components of an ecosystem is known as allogenic succession. In contrast, an autogenic succession is driven by the biotic components of the ecosystem. Allogenic succession happens on a time scale that is proportionate with the disturbance.
8. What is called for the succession driven by the biotic components of an ecosystem?
a) Allogenic succession
b) Autogenic succession
c) Computational succession
d) Migration succession
Answer: b
Explanation: In autogenic succession plants they cause succession to occur light captured by leaves, production of detritus and nitrogen fixation. Autogenic succession can be viewed as a secondary succession because of pre existing plant life.
9. What is called for a pattern of vegetation change in which a small number of species tend to replace each other over time in the absence of large scale disturbance?
a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Tertiary succession
d) Cyclic succession
Answer: d
Explanation: Cyclic ecological succession happens within established communities and is merely a changing of the structure of the ecosystem on a cyclical basis. In cyclic replacement observation that made has provided evidence against end state climax community.
10. Which is the first process in ecological succession?
a) Nudation
b) Migration
c) Ecesis
d) Aggregation
Answer: a
Explanation: Nudation is defined as the development of a bare site uninhabited by any organisms. This nudation is usually caused by disturbances in topographic, climatic or biotic factors. The areas formed can sustain only autotrophic organisms which can utilize in organic substrates.
11. What is called for the succession occurring within a microhabitat?
a) Primary succession
b) Nudation
c) Serule
d) Climax succession
Answer: c
Explanation: Micro-organisms such as fungi and bacteria occurring within a microhabitat known as serule. This type of succession occurs in newly available habitat. Changes of pH in a habitat could provide ideal conditions for a new species to inhabit the area.
12. What is called for the climax which is governed by more than one climate?
a) Climatic climax
b) Catastrophic climax
c) Sub climax
d) Edaphic climax
Answer: d
Explanation: Community in which climax is governed by more than one climax communities in a region, soil nutrients, soil moisture, scope exposure and animal activity is called as edaphic climax. Soil factors like salinity, alkalinity determined climax community.
13. After landslide which of the following type of succession occurs?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Climax
Answer: a
Explanation: Succession is generally regarded as primary when it occurs on a landslide where rock and subsoil, virtually free of organic matter are exposed, despite the fact that landslide was formed the substratum just beneath a developed soil carrying vegetation.
14. Ecesis is the initial establishment of the plant community.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecesis is dependent on the soil structure and it is the initial establishment of the plant community. In this stage, the early colonizing species proliferate abundantly through germination, growth and reproduction. It is due to allogenic mechanisms.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Food Chains”.
1. What is a food chain?
a) A long chain made of food
b) Process of preparing food
c) Food where locked by chain
d) Pathway that energy and nutrients flow through the ecosystem
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy living organisms need food to get energy and thus to survive. The food chain describes who eats whom in the wild. Different habitats and ecosystems provide many possible food chains that make up a food web.
2. Why organisms in food chains are grouped into categories?
a) To form community
b) To share the energy
c) To form trophic levels
d) To get more energy
Answer: c
Explanation: Trophic levels are the levels within the food chain where an organism obtains its energy. This energy depends on whether the organism is producers, consumers or decomposers. The number of trophic levels in food chains varies from three to five.
3. What role human plays in food chains?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Humans do not involve in food chains
d) Decomposers
Answer: b
Explanation: Humans are consumers in the food chain. Humans depend on other organisms or plants for energy and they can’t generate own energy. Humans eat both plants and animals. Humans can be classified into both primary and secondary consumers based on food chain.
4. Why do all food chains start with plants?
a) Because plants are easily grown
b) Because plants are nutritious
c) Because plants can produce its own energy
d) Because plants do not require energy
Answer: c
Explanation: The whole food chain depends on the producers. Plants are the only producers. The plants are autotrophs, as they produce their own food by the process of photosynthesis. Food is the source of energy in living being, thus plants are required to start food chains.
5. How many types of ecological models are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two major types of ecological models which are used they are, analytic models and computational models. Analytic models are simple systems where computational models use numerical techniques to solve problems.
6. Food chains are often used in ecological modeling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological model is a mathematical representation of an ecological system includes individual population and ecological community which are studied to better understand the real system. Ecosystem models provide a description of climate and stand metrics.
7. Which of the following food chain correctly describes the flow of energy in an ecosystem?
a) Grass->lion->human
b) Cow->grass->lion
c) Grass->goat->human
d) Leaf->bird->lizard
Answer: c
Explanation: Usually energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level. In the above answer, grass is the lowest trophic level and it is a producer. Goat eats grass to get energy. Goat is a primary consumer. Human eat goat for energy and human belongs to the secondary consumer.
8. If there is a shortage of deer in forest, what tiger might do?
a) Eat grassland leaves
b) Die due to starvation
c) Hunt for other animals
d) Fasting until they find deer
Answer: c
Explanation: In any food chain, one particular animal do not depend on another particular animal. Consumers depend on the producers for energy but that producer may not be particular for consumers all the time.
9. In the food relationship, where the tiger eats the deer and the deer eats plants. Which of the following conditions is true?
a) The tiger is the prey
b) The tiger is the primary consumer
c) The deer is the predator
d) The deer is the prey
Answer: d
Explanation: In the above relationship of food chain of the tiger and deer, the tiger is the predator and the deer is the prey. In other words, the tiger is the secondary consumer and the deer is the primary consumer.
10. Which of the following condition is true about food chain?
a) Provide more energy for next trophic level
b) Provides food for succeeding organisms
c) Consume energy from next trophic level
d) Do not pass energy to next trophic level
Answer: b
Explanation: In a food chain, the organisms provide food for succeeding organisms irrespective whether they are producers or consumers. Plants which are producer gives energy to the primary consumers like deer and this deer gives energy to secondary consumer say carnivores.
11. Carrot->rabbit->fox is an example of_______________________
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Food cycle
d) Food round
Answer: b
Explanation: Food chain is a linear sequence of links in a food web starting from producers to apex predators. In the above example carrot is a producer. Rabbit is primary consumer which eats producer and fox is secondary consumer which eats primary consumer.
12. Which of the following factor diminishing as food chain proceeds?
a) Pressure
b) Energy
c) Nutrition
d) Temperature
Answer: b
Explanation: During the transfer of energy of organic food from one trophic level to the next, only about 10% of the energy from organic matter is stored as flesh. The remaining is lost during transfer, broken down in respiration or due to incomplete digestion by higher trophic levels.
13. Which of the following organisms begins marine food chains?
a) Phytoplankton
b) Fishes
c) Zooplankton
d) Corals
Answer: a
Explanation: Marine food chain begins with phytoplankton. Phytoplankton is microscopic marine algae. Phytoplankton provides the foundation of the sea’s food chain in a balanced system. This phytoplankton captures the sun’s energy through photosynthesis.
14. We can find a marine ecosystem on a beach shore.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Marine ecosystems are distinguished from freshwater ecosystem by the presence of dissolved compounds like salts. A beach shore is subject to the actions of the tide which is covered by salty sea water. Shores are considered intertidal zones of the marine ecosystem.
This set of Energy Management Objective Questions & Answers focuses on “Food Webs”.
1. Why is a food web more realistic way of portraying an ecosystem than a food chain?
a) Because it shows the relation of organisms with each other in a habitat
b) Because food chains use only a small sampling of organisms
c) Because it doesn’t shows the relation of organisms with each other in a habitat
d) Because it compares the number of consumers to the number of micro-organisms.
Answer: a
Explanation: Food web is more realistic due to the fact that we can add more organisms into the mix and show how they interact with each other in an ecosystem. In food chain we are just doing a small segment of about three or four animals in a basic food chain.
2. What is called for an organism that helps to define an entire ecosystem?
a) Super species
b) Keystone species
c) Dominant species
d) Precious species
Answer: b
Explanation: Keystone species have low functional redundancy. Any organisms from plants to fungi can be a keystone species. They are not always most abundant species in an ecosystem. The way animals influence food webs varies from habitat to habitat.
3. What is called for the diagram that shows how food chain linked together into more complex feeding relationship?
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Food circle
d) Food triangle
Answer: a
Explanation: A food web consists of all the food chains in a single ecosystem. All the interconnected and overlapping food chains in an ecosystem make up a food web. Unlike a food chain, organisms in food web occupy more than one trophic level.
4. Which of the following condition is true for food web?
a) A food web only follows just one path
b) A food web ends with a producer
c) A food web starts with a consumer
d) A food web shoes many paths plants and animals connected.
Answer: d
Explanation: In food web we find many different paths on plants and animals which are connected to each other. In food web producer are connected to consumers and consumers are connected to decomposers in a specific order.
5. Which one of the following is the major difference between food web and food chain?
a) Food chain and food web are linear pathway
b) Food chain and food web are interconnected pathway
c) Food chain is a single linear pathway and food web is interconnected pathway
d) Food chain is interconnected pathway through which food web is single linear pathway
Answer: c
Explanation: Food chain is a single linear pathway through which food energy and nutrients travel in the ecosystem while food web is number of interconnected food chains through which energy along with nutrients travels in the ecosystem.
6. Food webs derive their energy from sunlight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Most food webs on Earth derive their energy primarily from sunlight. This energy is captured by plants via photosynthesis and then distributed to the consumers in the environment. A food web used that energy and those energy proceeds to the succeeding organisms.
7. In which of the following we can have more than one source of organisms for energy?
a) Food chain
b) Food web
c) Food circle
d) Food rotation
Answer: b
Explanation: In pond ecosystem, an algae which are a producer is a food for many organisms present in the pond. For example prawn, carp which are all primary consumers eat algae in order to get energy. Thus a single producer feeds many consumers.
8. Which of the following is the highest trophic level organism in grassland food web?
a) Grass
b) Grasshopper
c) Lizard
d) Hawk
Answer: d
Explanation: In grassland trophic level grass is the producer. Grasshopper belongs to primary consumer. Lizard which eats grasshopper belongs to secondary consumer. Hawk belongs to tertiary consumer since it eats lizards.
9. Which of the following is correct order of food web for aquatic food web?
a) Diatoms->pteropods->lantern fish->squid->marlin
b) Diatoms->lantern fish->squid->marlin->pteropods
c) Lantern fish-> diatoms-> squid-> marlin->pteropods
d) Lantern fish-> diatoms-> squid-> pteropods-> marlin
Answer: a
Explanation: In aquatic food web diatoms is phytoplankton where the food web process starts. Pteropods are zooplankton. Lantern fish is the filterers. Squid is the predator followed by marlin which is top predator in aquatic food web.
10. Why large sharks remain in the highest trophic level in the aquatic food web?
a) Because large sharks are predators
b) Because large sharks are top predators
c) Because large sharks are phytoplankton
d) Because large sharks are zooplankton
Answer: b
Explanation: In aquatic food web large sharks which is a top predator remains in the top level in trophic level. The order of trophic level in aquatic food web is phytoplankton->zooplankton->filterers->predators->top predator.
11. Why detritivores are considered at the zero level in the food web?
a) Because it eats only producers
b) Because it eats only consumers
c) Because it eats producers as well as consumers
d) Because it do not eat producers as well as consumers
Answer: c
Explanation: Detritivores are heterotrophs that obtain their nutrition by feeding on decomposing plant and animals. Detritivores play an important role in all ecosystems by getting rid of decaying organic matter left behind by the organisms.
12. Why lions are apex predators in grassland ecosystem?
a) Because lion do not eat other organisms
b) Because no other animal hunt lion for food
c) Because lion is the king of the jungle
d) Because lion is a herbivore animal
Answer: b
Explanation: Lion is considered as top predators or apex predators in the grassland ecosystem, because no other organisms hunt or kill lion for food. Usually, lion comes under tertiary or quaternary trophic level based on the food web.
13. “Trees produce acorns which acts as food for many insects and mice” is an example of__________________
a) Food chain
b) Food cycle
c) Food web
d) Food rotation
Answer: c
Explanation: In the above example many mice and insects depend on acorns for food. Since many organisms depend on the particular organism or plant for food in order to get the energy they are known as food web.
14. Food webs are more stable than food chains.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Food chain deals with one animal dependent on another. But in food web if one animal becomes extinct predators still have other sources of food. If they didn’t have this coping mechanism when one species went extinct everything that depends on it would die.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Ecological Pyramids”.
1. Who developed ecological pyramids for the first time?
a) Charles Newton
b) Charles Elton
c) Charles Babbage
d) Charles Darwin
Answer: b
Explanation: Ecological pyramids were first developed by Charles Elton. Since he first developed ecological pyramid is also known as Eltonian pyramid. An ecological pyramid may be erect or inverted depending on the type of criterion and the ecosystem.
2. Where we can find the inverted pyramids of biomass?
a) Terrestrial ecosystem
b) Aquatic ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem
d) Desert ecosystem
Answer: b
Explanation: Aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids because there’s a high turnover rate of producers. This is stable because high rates of production keep up to consumption rates. Inverted food pyramid means that consumers are more than producers.
3. Which of the following shows the numbers of the producers, herbivores and the carnivores at their successive trophic levels?
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) Pyramid of numbers
Answer: d
Explanation: Pyramid of numbers is the number of organisms in a food chain can represent graphically in a pyramid. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each trophic level in the food chain. Hence pyramid of numbers represent the number of herbivores and the carnivores at their successive trophic levels.
4. How can we indicate the accurate energy passed at each trophic level?
a) By the help of pyramid of number
b) By the help of pyramid of biomass
c) By the help of pyramid of energy
d) By the help of pyramid of food web
Answer: b
Explanation: A pyramid of biomass is a more accurate indication of how much energy is passed at each trophic level. Biomass is the mass of living material in each organism multiplied by the total number of organisms in that trophic level.
5. Which of the following statement is true for pyramid of biomass?
a) The biomass in each trophic level is always more than the below trophic level
b) The biomass in each trophic level is always less than the below trophic level
c) The biomass in each trophic level is entirely different compared to below one
d) Trophic level don’t pass energy
Answer: b
Explanation: Biomass is a measure of the amount of food available. When animals eat only a small proportion of their food, it is converted into new tissue. This tissue is the food for the next trophic level organisms.
6. Pyramid of energy shows the relationship between energy and trophic level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of energy depicts flow of energy in the ecosystem. Source of all energy in ecosystem is the sun. Producers are only organisms in an ecosystem that can trap the solar energy. So base of energy pyramid is always wide compare to others.
7. What is the significance of the shape of the pyramid of energy?
a) It shows decrease in energy
b) It shows increase in energy
c) It shows the direction of energy flow
d) It shows the trophic levels
Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of energy is always upright in shape, this is because as energy lost as heat along food chains either used in respiration or lost due to heat. So there will be decrease in energy. Energy transformation is just about 10% for higher trophic levels.
8. Why are the trophic levels is in the shape of pyramid?
a) Due to loss of energy between the trophic level
b) Due to good looking
c) Due to increase of energy between the trophic level
d) Due to stable energy between the trophic level
Answer: a
Explanation: The pyramid shape of the trophic level comes from the loss of energy between the levels. The chain grows only 10% of the energy supply to the proceeding animals, that energy loss will be used to produce new primary consumers.
9. Which pyramid is always upright apart from tree ecosystem?
a) Pyramid of Number
b) Pyramid of Biomass
c) Pyramid of Energy
d) Pyramid of Force
Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of a number represents the total number of organisms at each trophic level. It is always upright except in a tree ecosystem. In tree ecosystem pyramid of number is inverted. Usually, it contains four trophic levels.
10. What is the exception to the upright pyramid of biomass?
a) Temperate forests
b) Deserts
c) Aquatic ecosystems
d) Grassland ecosystems
Answer: c
Explanation: The pyramids of biomass represent the relationship between different trophic levels in terms of biomass. In aquatic ecosystem the producers are small organisms with least biomass and the biomass gradually increase towards the apex of the pyramid.
11. In an energy pyramid, which way does energy transfer occur?
a) From both top to bottom and bottom to top of pyramid
b) From middle of pyramid
c) From top to the bottom of pyramid
d) From bottom to the top of pyramid
Answer: d
Explanation: The largest source of energy for an ecosystem is the Sun. Energy and nutrients passed when one organism eats another. Usually producers are in large amount when compared to that of consumers.
12. Which of the following ecological pyramids is the most fundamental?
a) Pyramid of energy
b) Pyramid of numbers
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) Pyramid of force
Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of energy is a diagrammatic expression of the rates of flow of energy through the different trophic levels of an ecosystem. The pyramid reflects the rates of respiration and photosynthesis.
13. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of ecological pyramids are there, a) Pyramid of Number: It represents the total number of organisms at each trophic level. b) Pyramid of Biomass: It represents total weight of the organisms in each trophic level. c) Pyramid of Energy: It represents total energy of the organisms in each trophic level.
14. The pyramid of biomass is upright in aquatic ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pyramid of Biomass is inverted in case of aquatic ecosystem because the producers in aquatic ecosystem are phytoplankton. This phytoplankton grows and reproduces rapidly. The pyramid of biomass has a small base, with the consumer biomass exceeding the producer biomass.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Forest Ecosystems”.
1. How many parts are there in the forest ecosystem?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: A forest ecosystem has two parts they are, abiotic and biotic. Abiotic type of forest depends on abiotic conditions at the site, they are also called non-living aspects of the forest. Biotic type of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type.
2. On which factor forest type is mainly dependent?
a) Abiotic
b) Size of the forest
c) Shape of trees
d) Products from the trees
Answer: a
Explanation: The forest type mainly depends on abiotic factors such as the climate and soil characteristics of a region. It also depends on the nature of the tree species whether they are evergreen forest, deciduous, xerophytes or mangroves.
3. Where can we find coniferous forest in India?
a) Deserts
b) River deltas
c) Grassland
d) Himalayan
Answer: d
Explanation: Coniferous forests grow in the Himalayan mountain region. It requires low temperature. Forests dominated by conifers such as pine, hemlock, spruce and fir. Wildlife such as snow leopards, Himalayan tahrs and musk deer’s are found in this region.
4. Why most of the Sun light does not penetrate to the ground in evergreen forest?
a) Because of snowfall
b) Because of less temperature
c) Because of trees overlap with each other
d) Because of less rainfall
Answer: c
Explanation: Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The trees overlap with each other to form a continuous canopy. Thus, little light penetrates down to the forest floor. The forest is rich in orchids and ferns.
5. Which state in India has the maximum percentage of its area covered by forests?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Mizoram
d) Nagaland
Answer: b
Explanation: Mizoram has the highest percentage is covered by forests. The state is host to numerous species of birds, wildlife. This is followed by Lakshadweep. Mizoram covers about 88% of its land with forest.
6. Forest plays an important role in ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Forests hold importance for all inhabitants as well as for the overall health of planet. Forest protects from adverse climatic conditions. Forests are major contributors to the Earth’s ability to maintain its climate. Deforestation negates these benefits.
7. Where can we find thorn forest in India?
a) Semi-arid regions
b) Desert regions
c) Himalayan regions
d) Northeast regions
Answer: a
Explanation: Thorn forests are found in the semi-arid regions of India. The trees, which are sparsely distributed, are surrounded by open grassy area. Thorn forest trees have long or fibrous roots to enable them to reach water at great depths.
8. What is considered as lungs of nature?
a) Rock
b) Sun
c) Water
d) Trees
Answer: d
Explanation: Tress is considered as lungs of nature. Trees control pollutions by absorption and carbon dioxide and they release oxygen in return. This is similar to the respiration mechanism of lungs in humans where it takes oxygen by eliminating carbon dioxide.
9. How erosion controlled by forest?
a) By reducing in the sunlight penetration
b) By reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
c) By reducing the pressure
d) By increasing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
Answer: b
Explanation: Forest prevents erosion by reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface. Forest absorbing water and they do not allow it to flow directly run off. By this method, they prevent the removal of topsoil.
10. How forests increase the atmosphere’s humidity?
a) By transpiration
b) By inspiration
c) By expiration
d) By oxidation
Answer: a
Explanation: Forest release water vapor by transpiration which increases humidity. Forest contains many trees, these trees undergo photosynthesis. During this process, they released oxygen and water resulting in increase in humidity of atmosphere.
11. Which of the following type of forest important for watersheds?
a) Tropical Evergreen forest
b) Tropical Deciduous forest
c) Tropical Montane forests
d) Grassland forest
Answer: c
Explanation: Tropical Montane forests play an important role in watersheds. Watersheds are defined as an area of land that contains a common set of streams and rivers that all join into a single larger body of water. Tropical Montane forest is characterized by dense forest which helps in watershed.
12. How the tropical rain forest gets the name?
a) Due to less rain
b) Due to heavy rain
c) Due to moderate rain
d) Due to no rain required
Answer: b
Explanation: The tropical rain forest named so because they receive a lot of rain. They receive an average of 80 inches a year. Due to heavy rain temperature doesn’t change very much and it is always warm and muggy.
13. Where can we find the most feared spider in the world ‘Tarantulas’?
a) In deserts
b) In mountains
c) In tropical rain forests
d) In grassland forest
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Tarantulas’ is one of the deadliest spiders found in tropical rain forest. Most species of tarantula have poisonous fangs for killing prey and to protect itself from other organisms. The tropical rain forest suits for this spider to survive.
14. The biomass of a forest is defined as the mass of living plants.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The biomass of a forest is defined as the mass of living plants. It is normally expressed as dry weight per unit area. Biomass production in the forest is the rate at which biomass is accrued per unit area over a fixed interval of time in a forest.
This set of Basic Energy Management Questions and Answers focuses on “Grassland Ecosystems”.
1. What is the predominate vegetation in grassland ecosystem?
a) Sand
b) Land
c) Rock
d) Grass
Answer: d
Explanation: Grassland ecosystem includes a wide range of landscapes in which the vegetation is predominantly grass and small annual plants specifically adapted to India’s climatic conditions. Due to the high presence of grass vegetation it got its name as Grassland ecosystem.
2. In grassland area how much amount of rainfall is required?
a) Low rainfall
b) High rainfall
c) Moderate rainfall
d) They don’t require any rainfall
Answer: a
Explanation: Grasslands cover areas where rainfall is low. The area of grassland ecosystem has soil depth and its quality is poor. The low rainfall prevents the growth of a large number of trees and shrubs. It is sufficient to support the growth of grass cover during the monsoon.
3. How humans use grassland?
a) To cultivate the land
b) To feed livestock
c) To grow thick forests
d) Grassland is not at all useful for humans
Answer: b
Explanation: Humans use grassland to feed various livestock. Grassland mainly consists of grass, animals such as cow, buffalo, sheep and various other animals depend eat grass as their main food. Thus by raring cattle humans many products from livestock.
4. Which of the following ecosystem shows varieties in his vegetation?
a) Aquatic ecosystem
b) Desert ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem
d) Forest ecosystem
Answer: c
Explanation: Grasslands form a variety of ecosystems located in different climatic conditions. It ranges from near desert conditions to patches of shoal grasslands that occur on hill-slopes. In the Himalayas, there are high cold pastures.
5. Where we can find tracts of tall elephant grass?
a) Terai belt
b) Deccan belt
c) Himalayan pasture belt
d) Gangs belt
Answer: a
Explanation: Tracts of tall elephant grass present in the low lying terai belt south of the Himalayan foothills. This is one of the types of grassland which is found in India. They form variety of ecosystems based on climatic conditions.
6. Himalayan wildlife requires both forest and grassland ecosystems.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Himalayan Wildlife requires both ecosystems. They want forest as well as grassland ecosystem as vital parts of their habitat. The animal migrates up into the high altitude grasslands in the summer season. In winter they move downwards.
7. What is the type of grassland ecosystem which is found at Western India, Central India and the Deccan?
a) The semi-arid plains
b) The terai
c) The Himalayan pasture belt
d) The shola
Answer: a
Explanation: The semi-arid plains of Western India, Central India and the Deccan are covered by grassland tracts with patches of thorn forest. Several mammals such as blackbuck, chinkara and birds such as bustards and floricans are adapted to this condition.
8. Which of the following consist of patches on hill slopes?
a) The shola grassland
b) Desert
c) Himalayan region
d) Deccan pasture land
Answer: a
Explanation: The shola grasslands consist of patches on hill slopes that occur alongside the shola forests on the Western Ghats and the Anamalai ranges. These form patchworks of grassland on the slopes and forest habitats along the streams.
9. Which ecosystem are the grazing areas of many rural communities?
a) Tropical evergreen
b) Tropical deciduous
c) Grassland
d) Desert
Answer: c
Explanation: Farmers who keep cattle or goats and shepherds are highly dependent on grasslands to supply food for their livestock. Many rural people use grassland for grazing purpose. The grass is also to thatch houses and farm-sheds.
10. What is stored to feed cattle if there is no grass during summer to cattle?
a) Vegetables
b) Chemical manures
c) Fodder
d) Water
Answer: c
Explanation: Grassland is used to graze cattle. Fodder is collected and stored to feed cattle when there is no grass left for them to graze in summer. Sometimes grassland ecosystem won’t give healthy grass due to climatic changes.
11. How grassland converted into flat stubs?
a) By over grazing
b) By less grazing
c) By climatic changes
d) By less water
Answer: a
Explanation: When animals over graze, the grasses are converted into flat stubs with very little green matter left in the land. Degraded grasslands have fewer grass species as the nutritious species which are used by the large number of domestic animals.
12. How many percent of grassland covered in terms of permanent pastures in India?
a) 2.7%
b) 3.7%
c) 4.7%
d) 5.5%
Answer: b
Explanation: According to 2002 report given by the ‘Food and Agriculture Organization’, the grassland cover in the country, in terms of permanent pastures is only 3.7% of the total land which includes all types of ecosystem.
13. Why rotational grazing pattern established?
a) To preserve grassland ecosystem
b) To destroy grassland ecosystem
c) To graze in the tropical rain forests
d) To grow grass in grassland ecosystem
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to close a part of the grassland in an area every year, the rotational grazing pattern is established. Grasslands should be over grazed and some areas should be closed for grazing the live stock.
14. Human activities such as fires affect grassland adversely.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When fires are lit in the grasslands in summer, the burnt grass gets a fresh flush of small green shoots which the domestic animals graze on. In this is done too frequently, the grassland begins to deteriorate and grassland becomes bare.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Desert Ecosystems”.
1. In which of the following place we can find the cold deserts?
a) Bangalore
b) Chennai
c) Himalaya
d) Rajasthan
Answer: c
Explanation: Cold deserts are the deserts where we can find less vegetation and few organisms which is adopted to live in cold regions. Cold deserts covered with snow. We can also find this cold deserts in the high plateaus of the Himalayas.
2. What kind of climate we can find in the Thar desert?
a) Cold
b) Dry
c) Cool
d) Moist
Answer: b
Explanation: The climate in the Thar desert is extremely dry. Most of the typical desert landscape seen in Rajasthan is in the Thar desert. Thar desert has sand dunes and it also has areas covered with spares grasses with few shrubs.
3. Where can we find babul tree?
a) In deserts ecosystems
b) In river deltas
c) In grassland ecosystems
d) In semi-arid ecosystems
Answer: d
Explanation: Semi-Arid ecosystem or also known as a desert vegetation. The areas in the adjoining semi-arid tract, the vegetation consists of a few shrubs and thorny trees. Babul is one of the thorny tree found along with the kher tree.
4. Why Rann of Kutch attracts aquatic birds in monsoon season?
a) Because desert land is converted to forest land
b) Because desert land is converted to snow
c) Because desert land do not convert
d) Because desert land is converted to salt marshes
Answer: d
Explanation: Rann of Kutch is extraordinarily specialized air ecosystems. In summer the land is similar to a desert landscape. These are low-lying areas near the sea, they are converted to salt marshes during the monsoon.
5. Which is the only breeding colony of the flamingos in India?
a) The Little Rann
b) The Great Rann of Kutch
c) The Himalayans
d) Thar desert
Answer: b
Explanation: The Great Rann of Kutch is the only breeding colony of the greater and lesser flamingos in India. Condition in this landscape suits for flamingos to breed during a certain period of the year. The Little Rann of Kutch is the only home of the wild ass in India.
6. Desert and semi-arid regions have many organisms such as insects, birds and animals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Desert and semi-arid regions have a number of specialized insects and reptiles. The rare animals such as Indian Wolf, desert cat, desert fox and birds such as the great Indian bustard and florican also present in desert ecosystem.
7. For what purpose areas of scanty vegetation is used?
a) Grazing
b) Farming
c) Water storage
d) To generate wind power
Answer: a
Explanation: Areas of scanty vegetation with semi-arid land have been used for cattle goat and camel in states like Rajasthan and Gujarat. This also used for sheep grazing in the Deccan plateau. So grazing is the main advantage for scanty vegetation area.
8. What makes desert region to become highly unproductive?
a) Salinity
b) Sunlight
c) Temperature
d) Increase in the rain
Answer: a
Explanation: The conversion of desert lands through extensive irrigation systems has changed several of the natural characteristics. Canal water evaporates rapidly bringing the salts to the surface. The region becomes highly unproductive as it becomes saline.
9. How can desert ecosystems be conserved?
a) By minimizing the human activity
b) By pouring water to desert area
c) By deforestation
d) By killing organisms
Answer: a
Explanation: Desert ecosystems can be conserved if we minimize the human activities in forest land and other cultivable land. Humans convert forest land in order to convert it to farming or for industrial usage.
10. Which of the following tribe protected trees from several generation in Rajasthan?
a) Bishnoi
b) Papadi
c) Korvanji
d) Gudus
Answer: a
Explanation: The Bishnoi tribe in Rajasthan is known to have protected their khejdi trees for several generations. The tradition began when the ruler of their region ordered his army to cut down trees for his own use.
11. Where can we see Indira Gandhi Canal?
a) Gujarat
b) Rajasthan
c) Punjab
d) Haryana
Answer: b
Explanation: The Indira Gandhi Canal is situated in Rajasthan. There is destroying in its important natural arid ecosystem as it will convert the region into an intensive agricultural land. Salt works also destroyed the area.
12. Which kind of soil we can found on the surface of Thar desert?
a) Rocky
b) Moist
c) Fertile
d) Aeolian
Answer: d
Explanation: The surface of the Thar desert consists of Aeolian sand. This Aeolian sand consists of wind deposited sand that has accumulated over the past 1.8 million years. The soil of the Thar desert remains dry throughout year.
13. Which is the biggest desert in the world including both hot and cold deserts?
a) Sahara
b) Arctic
c) Arabian
d) Antarctica
Answer: d
Explanation: Antarctica is the biggest desert in the world. Sahara is the biggest only in hot deserts but overall Antarctica comes to first place. The entirety of Antarctica is a desert with an annual precipitation of less than 200mm.
14. Deserts can only be ‘HOT’.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Deserts are classified into hot desserts and cold deserts. Sahara is the biggest hot desert in the world with an area of 9,000,000, whereas Antarctica is the biggest cold desert as well as overall biggest desert.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Aquatic Ecosystems”.
1. How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two important aquatic ecosystems are there. One is fresh water ecosystem and one more is marine ecosystem. Again these two ecosystems are further divided into various categories. Marine includes sea whereas fresh water includes lakes, rivers and wetlands.
2. Where plants and animals live in aquatic ecosystems?
a) Water
b) Land
c) Air
d) Fire
Answer: a
Explanation: In aquatic ecosystems, plants and animals live in water. These species which are live in water adapted themselves for a different type of aquatic habitats. From breeding to all mechanisms take place inside the water only.
3. What made organisms to build their ecosystem in quatic?
a) Curiosity
b) Evolution
c) Force from other organisms
d) Increase in water level
Answer: b
Explanation: According to scientists Earth’s first cellular life arose primordial in oceans. Later as evolution takes place many animals from aquatic ecosystem came to land and adopt themselves to live in the condition of land.
4. Where can we find both running water as well as stagnant water?
a) Marine ecosystems
b) Wetlands
c) Coral reefs
d) Freshwater ecosystems
Answer: d
Explanation: The freshwater ecosystems that have running water as streams and rivers. Ponds, tanks and lakes are ecosystems where water doesn’t flow. So in freshwater we can find both running water as well as stagnant water.
5. In which of the following we can see fluctuation in the water level dramatically in different season?
a) Coral reefs
b) Brackish water
c) Wetlands
d) Deep oceans
Answer: c
Explanation: Wetlands are special ecosystems in which the water level fluctuates dramatically in different seasons. They have expanses of shallow water with aquatic vegetation form an ideal habitat for fish and water birds.
6. Sea is salty.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Water flows down rivers and streams from mountains and usually there is no outflows from seas and oceans. Thus all the minerals and salts that are collected as water travels down rivers and lakes are collected in sea. Hence sea is salty.
7. Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?
a) Desert
b) Forest
c) Grassland
d) Oceans
Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean is the largest ecosystem on Earth. When we see the Earth from space we can only see blue color. That is due to water, seventy percent of Earth’s surface is covered by water, Water is vital for the survival of all living things.
8. Where can we see coral reefs?
a) In pond
b) In desert
c) In shallow trophical seas
d) In dense tropical forest
Answer: c
Explanation: Coral reefs come under Marine ecosystems. Marine ecosystems are highly saline water. Coral reefs are very rich in species and are found only in shallow trophical seas. The coral reefs in India are around the Andaman and Nicobar islands and found in the Gulf of Kutch.
9. Which of the following is among the world’s most productive ecosystems in terms of biomass production?
a) Pond ecosystems
b) Lake ecosystems
c) Brackish water ecosystems
d) River ecosystems
Answer: c
Explanation: Brackish water ecosystems in river deltas are covered by mangrove forests and are among the world’s most productive ecosystems in biomass production. Sunderbans in a delta of Ganges river is one of the example.
10. Which is the simplest aquatic ecosystem?
a) Pond
b) Stream
c) Lake
d) Marine
Answer: a
Explanation: Pond is the simplest aquatic ecosystems. Most ponds become dry after the rain over and are covered by terrestrial plants for the rest of the year. When the ponds fills in the monsoon season, a large number of food chains formed in the pond ecosystems.
11. Which ecosystem is known as giant permanent pond?
a) Lake ecosystem
b) Pond ecosystem
c) Seashore ecosystem
d) Marine ecosystem
Answer: a
Explanation: A lake ecosystem functions like a giant permanent pond. A large amount of its plant material is algae. Algae derives its energy directly from sun, this energy is transferred to microscopic animals which feeds on algae.
12. How many oceans constitute the marine ecosystems around peninsular India?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal constitute the marine ecosystems around peninsular India. In the coastal areas, the sea is shallow while further away it is deep. Peninsular shape helps India to protect from neighboring countries.
13. Beach is classified into which ecosystem?
a) Lake ecosystem
b) Seashore ecosystem
c) Pond ecosystem
d) River ecosystem
Answer: b
Explanation: Beaches can be sandy, rocky, shell covered. On each of these different types several species have evolved to occupy a separate them. There is a presence of crustaceans as crabs that make holes in the sand.
14. Humans are dependent on aquatic ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Humans use aquatic ecosystems for clean freshwater on which human life depends. Water is usually impounded by large dams to ensure supply throughout the year. Agriculture and industry are highly dependent on water.
This set of Energy Management Question Paper focuses on “Ecological Services”.
1. What is called for the benefits that nature provides to human beings?
a) Ecosystem services
b) Ecosystem conservation
c) Ecosystem degradation
d) Ecosystem pool
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological services are the environmental benefits resulting from physical, chemical and biological functions of ecosystems. Ecological services include market goods produced from ecosystems and non material benefits.
2. Why are ecosystem services important for sustainable development?
a) Due to increase in population
b) Due to decrease in population
c) Due to increase in forest area
d) Due to increase in animals
Answer: a
Explanation: The human population is increasing day by day and it will become a greater demand for many natural resources. The limited natural resources from the ecosystem may not satisfy each and everyone desire. Thus ecosystem services are important for sustainable development.
3. How might ecosystem services save our life?
a) By providing energy
b) By expanding our wealth
c) By killing organisms
d) By causing damages to ecosystem
Answer: a
Explanation: Many ecosystem services provide food which is the basic thing for all organisms to sustain the life. This food which contributes food web and thus the energy keep on passing from producers to decomposers.
4. Which of the following natural capital provide food production?
a) Grasslands
b) Forests
c) Wetlands
d) Croplands
Answer: d
Explanation: Cropland is defined as a land that includes areas used for the production of adapted crops for harvest. Two subcategories of cropland are recognized, cultivated and noncultivated. Cropland is the natural capital which provides food production.
5. What is the main reason for the reduction of ecological services?
a) Excessive growth of forest
b) Unsustainable depletion of natural capital
c) Increase in the yield of food crops
d) Improper management
Answer: b
Explanation: Ecological services have been declining continually as landscapes and are converted from their natural states for human use. Unsustainable depletion of natural capital results in the reduction of ecological services.
6. Humans are completely depended on the natural forest for food.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Humans are not completely depends on natural forests for food. We grow many food items that are required in private croplands. This private cropland meets the dependence of food for both humans and as well as animals.
7. Which of the following factor help to conserve water quality?
a) Sunlight
b) Forest
c) Rock
d) Sand
Answer: b
Explanation: Forests helps to conserve water quality. Trees provide shade to keep water cool. Cool water maintains higher oxygen content when compared to warm water. Water temperature and sedimentation play an important role in maintaining water quality.
8. Which of the following helps to preserve biodiversity?
a) Private forests
b) Rocks
c) Seas
d) Sediments
Answer: a
Explanation: Private forests play an important role in providing habitant to wildlife and they preserve biodiversity. Private forest in particular makes an important contribution to the conservation of aquatic habitat.
9. Which of the following is the important pool of carbon?
a) Air
b) Water
c) Forest
d) Land
Answer: c
Explanation: Forests constitute an important pool of carbon. Trees take carbon out of the atmosphere through photosynthesis. This carbon is stored in the trees. Green wood of weight is about 25% carbon. Thus carbon plays an important role in ecosystem.
10. Which type of forest is widely used for outdoor recreation?
a) Natural forests
b) Private forests
c) Dead forests
d) Grassland forests
Answer: b
Explanation: Forest land together with another water bodies like lake and streams provide an excellent resource for outdoor recreation. Some of the outdoor recreation are swimming, fishing and hiking. Private forests are often used for recreation compared to other types of forests.
11. How did ecosystem services help for pollination of crops?
a) By the help of humans
b) By animals help
c) By natural calamities
d) By self germination
Answer: b
Explanation: Plants rely on animals or the wind to pollinate the crops. Animals such as bees, butterflies and moths pollinate plants. All this pollination occurs accidentally. Animals while getting food the sticky pollen made at the base of the pollen helps in the pollination process.
12. According to Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, how many percent of ecosystem services are used unsustainably?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, biodiversity is a necessary underlying component of ecological goods and services. In 2005, they made a project and showed that 60% of ecosystem services are being degraded.
13. How many categories of service provide of ecosystem to humans according to ‘Millennium Ecosystem Assessment ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: In MEA scientist developed four basic categories of services provided by ecosystem to humans they are, 1. Providing services like wood, 2. Regulating services like flood regulations, 3. Supporting services like ecological processes, 4. Cultural services like aesthetic.
14. Ecosystem services are the benefits that humans freely gain from nature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecosystem services are providing by nature for free of cost to humans. But instead of using it in useful way humans degrading it. This leads to the improper use of ecological services. The term ‘Environmental Services’ was introduced in 1970.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Major International Environmental Conventions”.
1. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Basel Convention
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Stockholm Convention
Answer: a
Explanation: The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985. The main objectives are, parties to promote and cooperation by means of systematic observations, research and information exchange on the effects of human activities on the ozone layer.
2. How many years once the parties in the Vienna Convention meet to take a decision?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The parties of the Vienna Convention meet once in three years in order to make decisions designed to administer the convention. In 2009, the Vienna Convention became the first Convention of any kind to achieve universal ratification.
3. When did Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist?
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
Answer: c
Explanation: Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist on 17 May 2004. It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants and thus helps to maintain the health of humans and environment.
4. What are persistent organic pollutants?
a) Organic manure
b) Weed
c) Sand
d) Chemicals
Answer: d
Explanation: Persistent organic pollutants are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods and become widely distributed geographically and accumulated in the fatty tissue of living organisms.
5. What is the main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants?
a) Eliminate dangerous POPs
b) Increase the usage of dangerous POPs
c) Developing strong chemicals
d) Increase in the production of POPs
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants is to eliminate dangerous POPs starting with the 12 worst. Apart from this it also aims o support the transition to safer alternatives for POPs.
6. Rotterdam Convention is established to trade with hazardous chemicals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotterdam Convention is the prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. This Rotterdam Convention came into force in February 24, 2004.
7. Basel Convention is mainly deals with_________________
a) Biological diversity
b) Hazardous wastes and their disposals
c) Persistent organic pollutants
d) Ozone depleting
Answer: b
Explanation: Basel Convention was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the conference of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland. The main aim is to control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and its disposals.
8. What is the main aim of UNFCCC?
a) Stabilization of greenhouse gas
b) Increase of greenhouse gas
c) Increase of temperature
d) Stabilization of oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change came into exist in June 1992. The reason behind this is to achieve stabilization in greenhouse gases concentration in atmosphere.
9. Which convention came into exist for the use of ‘Transboundary water courses’?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Stockholm Convention
c) Helsinki Convention
d) Bucharest Convention
Answer: c
Explanation: Foe the regulation of use of international watercourses Helsinki Convention came into exists in 1992. The main aim is to protect and use of Transboundary watercourses and international lakes seeks to established cooperative frameworks.
10. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?
a) 21
b) 25
c) 27
d) 29
Answer: c
Explanation: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development met at the Rio de Janeiro Convention from 3rd to 14th June 1992. During this meeting they proclaimed 27 principles with the goal of establishing a new partnership.
11. For the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which convention took place?
a) Rio de Janeiro Convention
b) Bonn Convention
c) Basel Convention
d) Aarhus Convention
Answer: b
Explanation: Bonn Convention came into exist for the conservation of migratory species of wild animals. And also to conserve terrestrial species and marine species throughout their range was the objective of this convention.
12. When did the Washington Convention happen?
a) 1972
b) 1973
c) 1975
d) 1978
Answer: b
Explanation: Washington Convention is an international agreement between governments, drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1973 at the meeting held at International Union for Conservation of Nature.
13. What is the full form of ENMOD?
a) Environmental Middle Convention
b) Environmental Modification Convention
c) Environmental Middle Center
d) Environmental Modification Center
Answer: b
Explanation: The Environmental Modification Convention is an international treaty for prohibiting the military or other hostile use of environmental modification techniques. It came into force on October 5th 1978.
14. The Ramsar Convention is also called as the Convention on Wetlands.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Major International Environmental Protocols”.
1. When did the Montreal protocol come into force?
a) 1985
b) 1987
c) 1989
d) 1991
Answer: c
Explanation: Montreal protocol on substances that deplete ozone layer came into force in 1989. The protocol settargete for reducing the consumption and production of a range of ozone depleting substances.
2. When did India accepted Montreal protocol?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Explanation: Though Montreal protocol came into force in 1989, India accepted this protocol with its London Amendment in September 1992. The Ministry of Environment and Forest has established an ozone cell for this.
3. When did Kyoto protocol adopted?
a) 1996
b) 1997
c) 2000
d) 2007
Answer: b
Explanation: The Kyoto protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on December 1997. It entered int force on 16 February 2005. It is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention Climate Change.
4. For the convention on Biological Diversity which protocol was adopted?
a) Kyoto
b) Montreal
c) The Nagoya Protocol
d) The Cartagena protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: The Cartagena protocol on biosafety was adapted to the convention on Biological Diversity. It is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms.
5. Which protocol aims to sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources?
a) The Nagoya Protocol
b) The Cartagena protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Montreal Protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefits-sharing is an international agreement which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. It came into force on 12th October 2014.
6. Protocol and conventions are the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol to the convention is an agreement that diplomatic negotiators formulate and sign as the basis for a final convention where the parties set specific aims. Usually, when a major provision is to be incorporated a protocol is called among the countries.
7. Which protocol helps to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons?
a) Montreal Protocol
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) The Cartagena Protocol
d) The Nagoya Protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydro-fluorocarbons are greenhouse gases with a significantly higher warming potential than carbon dioxide. More than 170 countries have reached a historic deal to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons after years of protracted.
8. How many parties are there in the Nagoya Protocol?
a) 91
b) 93
c) 95
d) 97
Answer: b
Explanation: The Nagoya Protocol was adopted on29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Presently there are 93 parties are there. Secretary General of the United Nations worked as a depository for the Nagoya protocol.
9. When did the Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol come into force?
a) 2011
b) 2015
c) 2017
d) 2018
Answer: d
Explanation: The Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol is the recent added protocol. This protocol is majorly on Liability and Redress to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. This protocol came into force on 5 March 2018.
10. The international committee came into force for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The international committee for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was established in decision EM-1/3 adoption the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to undertake the preparations necessary for the first meeting of the parties to the protocol.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Environmental Compliance Status in India”.
1. What is the full form of NPPA?
a) National Policy on Population Abatement
b) National Policy on Pollution Abatement
c) National Policy on Population Absorption
d) National Policy on Population Arise
Answer: b
Explanation: National Policy on Population Abatement encourages the use of economical instruments to complement traditional command and control approaches to pollution abatement. The policy adopts various guiding principles to integrate environmental consideration.
2. Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving environmental conditions?
a) National Environmental Policy
b) National Water Policy
c) Environment Act
d) Air Policy
Answer: a
Explanation: National Environment Policy came into force in 2006. This is the most recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving environmental objectives include conservation of critical environmental resources and social development.
3. What is Environmental Compliance?
a) Conforming to government laws
b) Conforming to constitutional laws
c) Conforming to environmental laws
d) Conforming to tribal laws
Answer: c
Explanation: The meaning of environmental compliance is conforming to environmental laws, regulations and other requirements such as site permits to operate. Environmental concerns have led to a significant increase in the number of compliance imperatives.
4. What is the full form of EDMS?
a) Environmental Data Management Systems
b) Environmental Data Management Security
c) Environmental Data Management Sustainability
d) Environmental Data Management Syndrome
Answer: a
Explanation: Environmental Data Management System is software that is designed to manage environmental compliance. Criteria must be considered when selecting environmental compliance software like proven capability, high performance and data extraction.
5. How many laws relating to environmental protection in the legal framework are there?
a) Over one hundred
b) Over two hundred
c) Over three hundred
d) Over four hundred
Answer: b
Explanation: India has an elaborate legal framework with over to hundred laws relating to environmental protection. Key national laws for the prevention and control of industrial and urban pollution.
6. One of the main objectives of the Central Pollution Control Board is to coordinate the activities of State Pollution Control Boards and resolve the disputes among them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board is the national board with oversight powers over state boards. The CPCB has a central office as well as a network of zonal offices located in various places in India.
7. Which is the central government nodal agency responsible for planning, promotion and coordination of all environmental activities?
a) The Central Pollution Control Boards
b) Municipal Corporation
c) State Pollution Control Boards
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Answer: d
Explanation: Ministry of Environment and Forests is the primary institution responsible for the formulation and enforcement of environmental acts. It is established in 1985. The main objective is to conservation and survey of flora, fauna, forests and wildlife.
8. Which of the following helped in the saving of trees?
a) Pouring of water
b) Developing of chemical manuals
c) Use of modern agriculture
d) Development of iron and steel
Answer: d
Explanation: Development of iron and steel saved the trees that were used for most heavy construction and ship building. Coal mining saved more trees that didn’t need to be cut down for fire wood and the manufacture of charcoal.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Major Environmental Problems Associated with Selected Industry Sector”.
1. Why aviation causing environmental problems?
a) Due to demand and continually growing of aviation
b) Due to not proper growing of aviation
c) Due to decrease in the aviation
d) Due to pilot’s negligence
Answer: a
Explanation: Demand for air transport is continually growing and if this demand is to be met with all the attendant benefits, society must also accept the costs which includes noise, pollution, climate change, risk and resource use etc.
2. How computer industry causing environmental problems?
a) By not providing jobs to humans
b) By modern technologies like IOT, block chains
c) By printing unnecessary large amount of files
d) By making people lazy
Answer: c
Explanation: Computer are also causing environmental problems, when we print unnecessary large amounts of files from internal which wastes paper and harm trees. More use of computers wastes electricity that could have been saved and reduce the amount of burning of fossil fuel.
3. Why lead harmful for children?
a) Because it don’t give any nutritional values
b) Because it cause indigestion
c) Because it interferes with development of the nervous system
d) Because children become addict to this
Answer: c
Explanation: Lead is harmful to children because it interferes with development of the nervous system. It is a neurotoxin that can harm the kidneys and reproductive systems. Even low levels of lead and be harmful to a children mental development.
4. Apart from printing papers and electricity computers causing environmental problems by__________________
a) Making people lazy
b) Electronic wastes
c) Causing soil pollution
d) Causing noise pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Computers are made of heavy metals and dangerous chemicals. Heavy metals like lead, mercury, beryllium and PVC. These metal and chemicals contribute to global warming and causing pollution.
5. What is the impact of food processing on the environment?
a) Create loss in the vegetation
b) Create disposal problems
c) Create forest fire
d) Create deforestation
Answer: b
Explanation: The highly diversified nature of the food industry, various food processing, handling and packaging operations create wastes of different quality and quantity. If we don’t treat that could lead to increase disposal problems and severe pollution problems.
6. Industrialization causing urbanization.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Industrialization needs people to work in factories. People move from rural areas to cities. They are spread out to industrialized cities. A higher population puts added pressure on the local environment and cause environmental problems.
7. What step taken in mines to limit the environmental damages?
a) Construction of artificial mines
b) Construction of dams
c) Construction of heat processor
d) Construction of storage center
Answer: b
Explanation: To limit the environmental damage, mines often construct dams and place the toxic water inside. These dams do not necessarily prevent contamination of the surrounding environment, toxic waste can easily seep into soil and groundwater.
8. What is the main reason for acid mine drainage?
a) Dirty gold mining
b) Ground water
c) Soil erosion
d) Granite mining
Answer: a
Explanation: Dirty gold mining often leads to a persistent problem known as acid mine drainage. The problem results when underground rock disturbed by mining is newly exposed to air and water. Acidic water draining from mine sites is more concentrated than acid rain.
9. Which of the following is a liquid metal?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Oxygen
d) Mercury
Answer: d
Explanation: Mercury is a liquid metal. It is used in artisanal and small scale gold mining to extract gold from rock and sediment. Mercury reaches rivers, atmosphere, lakes and oceans. The use of mercury in gold mining is causing a global health and environmental crisis.
10. Mercury is extremely good to human health.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Mercury is bad for human health. The amount of vapor released by mining activities has been proven to damage kidneys, liver, brain, heart, lungs and immune system. In children and developing fetuses, mercury can impair neurological development.
11. What is the main reason of releasing of mercury into the Amazon’s water?
a) Soil erosion
b) Earth quake
c) Nuclear wastes
d) Gold mining
Answer: d
Explanation: Gold mining is the main responsible for the release of large amounts of mercury into the Amazon’s air and water. The mercury is poisoning plants, animals, fish and people. As gold mining increases, forests are coming down.
12. What is the main cause of industrial pollution?
a) Lack of polices to control pollution
b) Use of modern technologies
c) Planned industrial growth
d) Efficient waste disposal
Answer: a
Explanation: Lack of effective policies and poor enforcement drive allowed many industries to pass certain laws made by the pollution control board which resulted in mass scale pollution that affected lives of many people.
13. What is the term used for the use of resources for industrialization?
a) Pollution
b) Urbanization
c) Extraction
d) Waste material
Answer: c
Explanation: Industrialization makes use of resources from the land, water, wood, plants, fossil fuels, etc. This has an effect on the environment. Since demand goes up, more quantities of minerals and ores are extracted from the land.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “History, Types and Sources of Air pollution’s”.
1. When did the air pollution on earth happened first time?
a) When humans started using tools
b) When humans started using firewood
c) When humans started using clothes
d) When humans started using wheels
Answer: b
Explanation: The origin of air pollution on earth can be traced when humans started using firewood as a means of cooking and heating food items. Back in 400 BC itself, Hippocrates mentioned air pollution. As the years passed air pollution keeps on increasing.
2. Who made the first anti-pollution law?
a) Martin Luther King
b) Nelson Mandela
c) Queen Elizabeth
d) King Edward 1
Answer: d
Explanation: King Edward 1 makes the first anti-pollution law to restrict people from using coal for domestic heating in the year 1273. In 1300 another act for banning the use of coal passed. Defying the law led to severe punishment.
3. Which was the first major disaster of air pollution?
a) New York smog
b) London smog
c) Paris smog
d) Delhi smog
Answer: b
Explanation: Air pollution became a serious problem in London during the Industrial Revolution. The earliest recorded major disaster was the London smog that occurred in 1952, which resulted in more than 4000 deaths.
4. What is the significance of black color moth in Europe during 19th century?
a) Indication of evolution
b) Indication of soil pollution
c) Indication of mutation
d) Indication of air pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: In Europe during 19th century, a black form of the peppered moth began appearing in industrial areas. The normal pepper patterned moths were successful in surviving in clean non-industrial areas, only black colored moths were successfully adopted themselves in industrial areas.
5. What is the main cause of increase in air pollution in the 20th century?
a) Development of the transport system
b) Development of infrastructures
c) Development of electricity
d) Development of water resources
Answer: a
Explanation: In 20th-century air pollution began to increase with the development of transportation systems and the large scale use of petrol and diesel usage. Pollution due to auto exhaust is a serious environmental issue.
6. Natural causes also results in air pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The air also becomes polluted by natural causes such as volcanoes which results in ash, dust, sulphur and other gases. Occasionally due to lightning forest fires also happens which results in the loss of vegetation and also cause air pollution.
7. How many primary pollutants are there?
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Nine
Answer: b
Explanation: Pollutants that are emitted from identified sources which are produced by both by natural events and by manmade activities are known as primary pollutants. The five primary pollutants are carbon oxides, nitrogen oxides, sulphur oxides, volatile organic compounds and suspended particulate matter.
8. What are secondary pollutants?
a) Pollutants due to fire
b) Pollutants due to emission
c) Pollutants due to a chemical reaction
d) Pollutants due to oxidation
Answer: c
Explanation: The pollutants produced in the atmosphere when certain chemicals reactions take place among the primary pollutants are called secondary pollutants. Some of the examples of secondary pollutants are sulphuric acid, nitric acid and carbonic acid.
9. Which is the colorless, odorless and toxic gas which produced when organic materials incompletely burn?
a) Sulphur oxide
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Oxygen
d) Particulates
Answer: b
Explanation: Vehicular exhausts are the largest single source of carbon monoxide. It is a colorless, odorless and toxic gas produced when organic materials like natural gas or wood are incompletely burnt.
10. Which of the following cause soot in the environment?
a) Hydrocarbons
b) Nitrogen oxide
c) Sulphur oxide
d) Particulates
Answer: d
Explanation: Particulates are small pieces of solid material like dust particles and ash from industries which dispersed into the atmosphere. Repeated exposure to particulates causes them to accumulate in the lungs and cause severe problems.
11. What is aerosol?
a) General term for particles in air
b) General term for particles in soil
c) General term for particles in water
d) General term for particles inside humans
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerosol is a general term which is used to express the meaning for the particles which are suspended in air. This aerosol contributes to air pollutants as they join other materials in the atmosphere. Sprays from pressurized cans are an example of aerosol.
12. What is smog?
a) Mixture of smoke and particulates
b) Mixture of smoke and oxygen
c) Mixture of smoke and fog
d) Mixture of soot and fog
Answer: c
Explanation: Aerosol is a general term for particles suspended in air. Those aerosols when came into contact with water droplets they constitute fog. So smog is a term used to describe a mixture of smoke and fog.
13. Aerosol + solid particles + liquid particles results in____________________
a) Dust
b) Mist
c) Smog
d) Smoke
Answer: d
Explanation: Aerosol consisting of solid particles or a mixture of solid and liquid particles produced by chemical reactions such as fire is known as smoke. Smoke from the burning forest, cigarette smoke, smoke by chimneys is some of the examples of smoke.
14. Use of unleaded petrol is one way of reducing pollutant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Lead is a major air pollutant that remains largely unmonitored and is emitted by vehicles. High lead levels have been reported in big cities. Leaded petrol is the primary source of this pollutants, so unleaded petrol is a way to reduce this pollutant.
This set of Environment Management test focuses on “Effects and Control Measures of Air Pollution”.
1. Which is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon dioxide for living organisms?
a) Hurricanes
b) Soil erosion
c) Vehicles emission
d) Cigarette smoking
Answer: d
Explanation: Cigarette smoking is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon monoxide. Exposure to air containing even 0.001% of carbon monoxide for few hours can cause collapse, coma and even death in the worst case.
2. How excessive water loss takes place in plants?
a) Due to soil pollution
b) Due to mutation
c) Due to air pollution
d) Due to improper seed
Answer: c
Explanation: The leaves of plants are damaged when some gaseous pollutants enter the pores of the leaf. Chronic exposure of the leaves to air pollutants can break down the waxy coating that helps prevent excessive water loss in plants.
3. How does asthma cause to human beings?
a) Because of excessive diet
b) Because of water pollution
c) Because of air pollution
d) Because of soil pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: Asthma is one of the health impacts that are caused due to air pollution. There are many health impacts especially respiratory impacts on human beings. Asthma is caused due to excessive inhale of sulphur dioxide and smoking.
4. What is the reason for reduced in the plant growth?
a) Excessive exposure to sunlight
b) Excessive exposure to wind
c) Excessive exposure to water pollution
d) Excessive exposure to air pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: Reduced in the plant growth is due to the chronic exposure of air pollution on the plants. Reduced plant growth is an effect due to the impact of plants of air pollution. Chronic exposure interferes with photosynthesis and plant growth in the plants.
5. Which dioxide damages the flower process in plants?
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrite dioxide
d) Magnesium dioxide
Answer: a
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide released due to air pollution caused damages to living organisms. Higher concentration of sulphur dioxide results in the formation of flowers. The flower buds become stiff and hard. They fall from the plants, as they are unable to flower.
6. Human’s respiratory system doesn’t many mechanisms that help to protect them from air pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Human respiratory have many mechanisms to prevent air pollution. The hair in the noise filters out large particles. The sticky mucus in the lining of the upper respiratory tract captures smaller particles and dissolves some gaseous pollutants.
7. What is the main reason for ozone depletion?
a) Releasing of oxygen
b) Releasing of chemicals
c) Releasing of CFCs
d) Releasing of nitrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbons are extremely stable, non-flammable. CFCs leading in the ozone layer depletion. India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992, which aimed at controlling the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances.
8. Which of the following component is more dangerous to ozone layer?
a) CFCs
b) Nitrogen
c) Halons
d) Sulphur
Answer: c
Explanation: Halons are similar to structure to CFCs but it contains bromine instead of chlorine. CFCs and halons migrate into the upper atmosphere after they are released and caused damage to the ozone layer. Halons are more dangerous to the ozone layer than CFCs.
9. Why ozone depletion more over the South Pole?
a) Due to uneven disturbance of CFCs
b) Due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere
c) Due to cyclonic depression in South Pole
d) Due to extreme pressure
Answer: b
Explanation: Despite the fact that CFCs are evenly distributed over the globe, ozone depletion is especially pronounced over the South Pole due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere.
10. When did India signed the Montreal Protocol?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Explanation: India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992. The aim is to control the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances. It was set up as an example of a successful international agreement.
11. What is the main reason for skin cancer?
a) Due to mutation
b) Due to unhealthy lifestyle
c) Due to alcohol consumption
d) Due to UV radiations
Answer: d
Explanation: Ozone depletion causes many harmful health impacts on humans and other organisms. When humans are exposed to Sunlight where due to ozone layer depletion receives direct UV radiations which cause skin burn which further causes skin cancer.
12. How many fundamental approaches are there to control air pollution?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Air pollution can be controlled by two fundamental approaches. Those approaches can control air pollution if it applies in effective way. The two fundamental approaches to control air pollution are preventive techniques and effluent control.
13. Why industries location plays an important role with concern to the environment?
a) To get more output from industries
b) To clear the forests in order to build the industries
c) To get more income
d) To prevent pollution causing by industries
Answer: d
Explanation: Industries should be carefully located in order to minimize the effects of pollution after considering the topography and wind direction. Industries with are in side cities cause more pollution than those which are in outskirts.
14. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme is formed to monitor the air quality.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: NAMP aims to determine the present air quality status and trends, and to control and regulate pollution from industries and other sources to meet the ambient air quality standards. It provides background air quality data that is required for industrial sitting and town planning.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Causes of Water Pollution”.
1. Which of the following organisms found in human waste that cause water pollution?
a) Coliform bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Protozoa
d) Parasitic worms
Answer: a
Explanation: Humans waste contains concentrated populations of coliform bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis. These bacteria normally grow in the large intestine of the human body. Releasing of such wastes to water cause pollution in water bodies.
2. What is oxygen depleting waste?
a) Organic waste that can be decomposed by aerobic bacteria
b) Organic waste that can be decomposed by anaerobic bacteria
c) Organic waste that can be decomposed by aerobic viruses
d) Organic waste that can be decomposed by anaerobic viruses
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxygen depleting waste is organic that can be decomposed by aerobic bacteria. Large populations of bacteria use up the oxygen present in the water in order to degrade these wastes. This degrades the water quality as it uses up the oxygen.
3. What is the indicator of pollution in water?
a) Amount of oxygen
b) Amount of hydrogen
c) Amount of BOD
d) Amount of nitrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of oxygen required to break down a certain amount of organic matter is called the biological oxygen demand . The amount of BOD in water is an indicator of the level of pollution.
4. Why certain parts of water bodies contain more number of algae?
a) Due to favorable environment
b) Due to run-off excess fertilizers
c) Due to lack of fertilizers
d) Due to water pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Inorganic plant nutrients found in fertilizers. Run-off carries excess fertilizers into nearby water bodies, causing high levels of plant nutrients which promote the excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants.
5. What are water soluble inorganic chemicals?
a) Compounds of pure metals
b) Compounds of non-metals
c) Compounds of synthetic metals
d) Compounds of toxic metals
Answer: d
Explanation: Water soluble inorganic chemicals are acids, salts and compounds of toxic metals such as mercury and lead. High levels of these chemicals can make the water unfit to drink and harm fish and other aquatic life.
6. There is only one class of common water pollutants.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several classes of common water pollutants. These classes of water pollutants harm the environment by polluting the water. Some of the classes of common water pollutants are Disease causing agents, oxygen depleting waste, inorganic plant nutrients etc.
7. Who sediment of suspended matter occurs?
a) When soil is eroded from the air
b) When soil is eroded from the land
c) When soil is eroded from the water
d) When soil is eroded from the rock
Answer: b
Explanation: Sediment of suspended matter occurs when the soil is eroded from the land. High levels of soil particles which are suspended in water interfere with the penetration of sunlight. This reduces the photosynthetic activity of aquatic plants and algae.
8. What is a sediment of suspended matter?
a) Insoluble particles of soil and other solids
b) Soluble particles of soil and other solids
c) Insoluble particles of water
d) Soluble particles of water
Answer: a
Explanation: Sediment of suspended matter is insoluble particles of soil and other solids that become suspended in water. When the velocity of water in streams and rivers decreases, the suspended particles settle down at the bottom as sediments.
9. Where we can find water soluble radioactive isotopes?
a) In radioactive reactor
b) In radioactive coolant
c) In radioactive shield
d) In radioactive waste
Answer: d
Explanation: Water soluble radioactive isotopes are contained in the radioactive waste. They can be concentrated in various tissues and organs as they pass through food chains and food web. The ionizing radiation can cause cancer and genetic damage.
10. What is the main reason for thermal pollution?
a) Increase in the temperature of the ecosystem
b) Increase in the chemical contains in water
c) Hot water released by power plants and industries
d) Pollution causing by vehicles
Answer: c
Explanation: The hot water released by power plants and industries that use large volumes of water to cool the plant. This result in a rise in temperature of the water bodies, due to this thermal pollution occurs.
11. Why thermal pollution causing the release of hot water by power plants is dangerous?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen
b) They decrease the solubility of oxygen
c) They don’t dissolve oxygen
d) They dissolve nitrogen
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot water released by power plants and industries warm water bodies those which are connected to power plants and industries. This warm water decreases the solubility of oxygen and it changes the breeding cycles of various aquatic organisms.
12. How to minimize the pollution of water pollution due organic chemicals that release to water bodies?
a) To remove all the aquatic organisms from the water
b) To purify water manually after released to the water bodies
c) Purify the water before enter the water directly from industries
d) Leave the water bodies without using it
Answer: c
Explanation: Organic chemicals are harmful to aquatic life and human health. These include oil, gasoline, detergents and many other chemicals. They enter the water directly from industrial activity from improper handling of chemicals in industries.
13. The birds lay eggs with shells that are much thinner than normal is an example of_______________
a) Bioaccumulation
b) Mutation
c) DNA sequence
d) Mal nutrients
Answer: a
Explanation: The pesticides that eat by an organism keep on moving in an aquatic food chain. At each link in the food chain, these chemicals which do not pass out of the body get accumulated and cause bioaccumulation. High levels of pesticides such as DDT can cause thin shells in bird eggs.
14. Leakage of oil from underground tanks can pollute groundwater.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Oil is another chemical which can enter surface water bodies. The leakage from underground tanks can also pollute groundwater. Accidental oil spills from large transport tankers at sea have been causing significant environment pollution.
This set of Environment Management Quiz focuses on “Control Measures of Water Pollution”.
1. How agricultural management helps in the control of water pollution?
a) By giving an idea about the use of land management
b) By increase the water intake
c) By using poor soil which consumes less water
d) By encouraging farmers to use more chemicals
Answer: a
Explanation: Land use is one of the agricultural management which helps in the control of water pollution. It includes crop rotation systems and the proportion of the land area devoted to permanent crops relating to annual tillage crops.
2. How soil resistance can increase against erosion?
a) By maintaining the water inflow
b) By maintaining the physical structure of soil
c) By maintaining the environmental conditions
d) By increasing the manure given to the plants
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing soil resistance against erosion can be achieved by maintain the physical structure of soils. Good farming practices allow for adequate inputs of organic fertilization by digging in crop residues.
3. Why ground water monitoring is important in control of water pollution?
a) To provide more quantity of water
b) To increase the chemical contains in the water
c) To provide good quality of water
d) To reduce the amount of water supplying from ground water
Answer: c
Explanation: Ground water monitoring techniques provide a better means of distinguishing the temporal process of ground water contamination and provide good quality of water for drinking and for other daily chores.
4. How can we reduce the effluent volume of water to maintain its pollution level?
a) Increase the upstream flow by low flow augmentation
b) Decrease the upstream flow by low flow augmentation
c) Increase the upstream flow by high flow augmentation
d) Decrease the upstream flow by high flow augmentation
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the measures to control water pollution is to reduce the effluent volume by increasing the upstream flow by low flow augmentation. This means releases from upstream reservoir storage from nearby water bodies.
5. In order to control the water pollution of pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasites, how many categories are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The three broad categories for control of pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasites are, control at the initial source of the micro-organisms, control at the area of water use, and control of the product that is affected by contamination.
6. Redesign of synthetic detergents to reduce foaming can minimize water pollution in little quantity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Redesign of synthetic detergents to reduce foaming and downstream transport through increased biodegradation rate. This can control water pollution. Thus the chemicals released by detergents can also be reduced.
7. How are aquatic weeds used in controlling water pollution?
a) They use as a decorative substances
b) They use as biological filters
c) They use as chemicals
d) They used to upgrade wastewater treatment
Answer: d
Explanation: Aquatic weeds are used to upgrade wastewater treatment lagoons and treat chemical wastewaters. It can readily absorb, accumulate and concentrate heavy metals such as lead, mercury and cadmium.
8. What is the pH range of effluent after treatment?
a) Between 4.4 and 5.5
b) Between 4.8 and 6.1
c) Between 6.8 and 7.8
d) Between 7.8 and 8.3
Answer: c
Explanation: The pH of effluent after treatment has been found to be between 6.8 and 7.8, which is an ideal range of fresh water. As the metals are extracted from the effluents, it causes considerable cleaning of the effluent.
9. Why controlled use of water hyacinth is important in controlling of water pollution?
a) To decrease the BOD level
b) To increase the BOD level
c) To completely vanish the BOD level
d) To maintain the BOD level
Answer: b
Explanation: The controlled use of water hyacinth I conjunction with waste stabilization increases the BOD removal capacity of these systems. It also reduces the high total suspended solids normally associated with sewage lagoons.
10. When did water cess act come into force?
a) 1973
b) 1975
c) 1977
d) 1980
Answer: c
Explanation: Water cess act came into force in 1977. It is one of the important law which aims to reduce and prevent water pollution. Its effects have been limited in controlling water pollution. Strict implementation is necessary for effective prevention of water pollution.
11. Which of the following is not a way to minimize the disposal of toxic wastes into the water?
a) To create awareness about the pollution happening on water for people
b) To minimize the use of pesticides and chemicals into the agricultural fields
c) Recycle of plastic materials
d) Encouraging the disposals of electronic waste into the water bodies
Answer: d
Explanation: Out of the above four options encouraging the disposals of e-waste is not a way to minimize the disposal of toxic wastes into the water. The e-waste cause pollution to the water bodies so a proper treatment must be give before disposal.
12. Why the flowing water of the river cannot be cleaned easily by natural process?
a) Because a large number of external substances are discharged into the water
b) Because external climatic conditions are not favorable to clean the water
c) The following water is already cleaned before flowing itself
d) Because of lack of space to clean the water
Answer: a
Explanation: The flowing water of the river cannot be cleaned easily by a natural process since a large number of external substances are discharged into the water, the river water becomes polluted. These cause diseases to the people using river water.
13. Water that has been exposed to a substance other than water I called as_____________
a) Water purification
b) Water strength
c) Water contamination
d) Water desolation
Answer: c
Explanation: Water can be contaminated with natural elements and as well as from the materialistic things. All contaminated water is polluted, but all polluted water is contaminated with something. So a proper treatment for contaminated water can avoid the pollution of water.
14. Monitor used of motor oil can reduce water pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Many hazardous waste products that are used for cars, such as motor oil and gasoline are very dangerous. Motor oil contains potentially dangerous heavy metals such as lead and cadmium. So a proper monitor of this can avoid water pollution.
This set of Environment Management Problems focuses on “The State of India’s Rivers”.
1. How many percentage of pollution accounts by sewage and municipal effluents?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Answer: c
Explanation: Scientifically competent studies conducted by the CPCB says that sewage and municipal effluents accounts for 75% of the pollution load in rivers while the remaining 25% is from industrial effluents and non-point pollution sources.
2. When did India launched the Ganga Action plan ?
a) In 1983
b) In 1984
c) In 1985
d) In 1986
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1985, India launched the Ganga Action plan, the largest ever river cleanup operation in the country. GAP Phase-2 was launched in 1991 included cleaning operations for the tributaries of Ganga, the Yamuna, Gomati and Damodar.
3. What is the full form of NRCP?
a) National Railway Corporation Pipeline
b) National Rivers Cleaning Phase
c) National Roads Cleaning Phase
d) National River Conservation Plan
Answer: d
Explanation: National River Conservation Plan was launched in 1995. Under this plan all the rivers in India were taken up for cleanup operations. In most of these plans, attempts have been made to tap drains and divert sewage to treatment plants, before letting them out into rivers.
4. How many rivers do the National River Conservation Plan covered?
a) 13
b) 15
c) 16
d) 18
Answer: d
Explanation: National River Conservation Plan covers 18 rivers in 10 states including 46 towns. The cost is bore entirely by the Central Government and the Ministry of Environment and Forests. The main activities of the plan are to treat the pollution load from sewer systems of towns and cities.
5. To strengthen the ongoing NRCP, which new initiative was taken?
a) National Yamuna Basin Authority
b) National Narmada Basin Authority
c) National Ganga River Basin Authority
d) National Brahmaputra River Basin Authority
Answer: c
Explanation: National Ganga River Basin Authority was formed to strengthen the ongoing NRCP in 2009. The first meeting of the NGRBA Resolved to make the Ganga pollution free by 2020. This pledge to make Ganga free from pollution.
6. River water is used to a maximum extent.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: River water is used to a maximum extent because of its common reach to the biotic community. Maximum economic activities concentrate around rivers. About 50% of the population of the world resides in 250 river basins.
7. When did a model bill to regulate and control of groundwater come into force?
a) 1993
b) 1994
c) 1995
d) 1996
Answer: d
Explanation: Ministry of Water Resources prepared a model bill to regulate and control the development of groundwater in 1996. It provides the details of the definitions and the process of implementation of the bill.
8. To which of the following subjects ‘Repair, Renovation and Restoration’ comes under?
a) Buildings
b) Soil structures
c) Water bodies
d) Forests
Answer: c
Explanation: This is implemented by the Government of India, Ministry of Water Resources. ‘Repair, Renovation and Restoration’ comes to water body scheme that has been launched by the Ministry under the state sector.
9. Which plan was launched by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to restoring the water quality and ecology of the lakes?
a) National Water Conserved Plan
b) National Lake Conservation Plan
c) National River Ceremony Plan
d) National Water Conservation Plan
Answer: b
Explanation: National Lake Conservation Plan , launched by the Government of India aims at restoring the water quality and ecology of the lakes in different parts of the country. Thus it protects the rivers that flow to the lakes.
10. Which of the following have no rivers in it?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Karnataka
c) Andaman and Nicobar
d) Lakshadweep
Answer: d
Explanation: Every single state has at least one river flowing in it. Only the Union Territory of Lakshadweep has no rivers in it. Lakshadweep is a bunch of really small islands so there is no river flow in it.
11. According to NRGBA which is the national river of India?
a) Yamuna
b) Brahmaputra
c) Krishna
d) Ganges
Answer: d
Explanation: NRGBA was established by the Central Government of India on 20 February 2009 under Environment Protection Act, 1986. The chair includes the Prime Minister of India and Chief Minister of states through which Ganges flows. It declared the Ganges as the National River of India.
12. Which is the Longest River in India?
a) Ganges
b) Indus
c) Brahmaputra
d) Godavari
Answer: a
Explanation: Ganges is considered to be the longest river in India with a total length of 2,640 km. Indus and Brahmaputra both has length of 2,900 km but they are not called longest river because most of the part of river lies outside the Indian Territory.
13. Which is the most polluted river in India?
a) Ganges
b) Yamuna
c) Sabarmati
d) Godavari
Answer: b
Explanation: Yamuna tops the list of the most polluted rivers in India. It is also one of the top 10 dirtiest rivers in the world. The second most polluted river in India is the Ganges. Sabarmati is the third most polluted river in India.
14. All the rivers in India are female.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the rivers are female in India as Ganges, Yamuna, Godavari etc, but not all rivers are female as opposed to general opinion. There are many male rivers, to name a few male rivers are Damodar, Ajay, Sankosh, Bhima, Krishna and many more.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Soil and its Pollution”.
1. In which temperature soil develops slowly?
a) Summer
b) Wind
c) Rainy
d) Cold
Answer: d
Explanation: Climate and time play an important role in the development of soils. In extremely dry or cold climates, soils develop very slowly, while in humid and warm climates soil develop more rapidly due to favourable climatic conditions.
2. Under ideal climatic conditions how many cms of soil is developed?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: Under ideal climatic conditions, soft parent material may develop into 1 cm of soil within 15 years. Under poor climatic conditions, hard parent material may require hundreds of years to develop into the soil.
3. What is called for the matured soils which are arranged in a series of zones?
a) Soil zones
b) Soil layers
c) Soil horizons
d) Soil benches
Answer: c
Explanation: Mature soils are arranged in a series of zones called soil horizons. Each horizon has a distinct texture and composition that varies with the different types of soil. This soil horizon helps to discriminate different types of soils.
4. What is soil profile?
a) A cross sectional view of the horizons in a soil
b) A front view of the horizons in a soil
c) A cross sectional view of the horizons in rocks
d) A front view of the horizons in rocks
Answer: a
Explanation: A cross-sectional view of the horizon in a soil is called a soil profile. This soil profile can able to identify the special characteristics present in the soils and this can be used as a referral while studying a soil pollution causing by different soils.
5. How many horizons are there in soils?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four horizons in soils. The top layer is known as O-horizon. The uppermost layer of soil called as the A-horizon. The B-horizon called the subsoil, it contains less organic material. The area below the subsoil is called as the C-horizon.
6. A–horizon soil consists of partially decomposed organic matter.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The uppermost layer of the soil, called the A-horizon. It consists of partially decomposed organic matter and some inorganic mineral particles. This layer consists of a large amount of bacteria, fungi and other small insects, which form complex food webs in the soil.
7. Which horizon helps to determine the pH of the soil?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) O
Answer: c
Explanation: The chemical composition of the C-horizon helps to determine the pH of the soil and also influences the soil’s rate of water absorption and it also C-horizon helps in the process of retention of water.
8. What is called for the mixture of all the contents of soil?
a) Erosion
b) Sublimation
c) Degradation
d) Loams
Answer: d
Explanation: Soil varies in their content of clay, silt, sand and gravel. The relative amounts of the different sizes and types of mineral particles determine the soil texture. Soils with an approximately equal mixture of clay, sand, slit and humus are called loams.
9. Why area treatment is important for soil?
a) To reduces the impact of raindrops on the soil
b) To maximize surface run-off
c) Not treating the upper catchment and proceeds towards an outlet
d) Not storing surplus rainwater
Answer: a
Explanation: Area treatment in soil reduces the impact of raindrops on the soil. The treatment measures are to develop vegetation cover on non-arable land. It effects in minimum disturbance and displacement of soil particles.
10. What is called for the movement of surface litter and topsoil from one place to another?
a) Soil submerge
b) Soil degradation
c) Soil erosion
d) Soil pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: Soil erosion is a natural process, it is often caused by wind and flowing water. It is greatly accelerated by human activities such as farming, construction, over grazing by livestock and burning of grass cover and deforestation.
11. Why continuous contour trenches are used?
a) To decrease the infiltration of air
b) To enhance the infiltration of air
c) To decrease the infiltration of water
d) To enhance the infiltration of water
Answer: d
Explanation: Continuous contour trenches can be used to enhance the infiltration of water. It also used to reduce the run-off and check soil erosion. In areas with steep slopes where bunds are not possible, continuous contour benches are used for the same purpose.
12. What is used to convert wastelands into agricultural lands?
a) Check dams
b) Water purifier
c) Rain harvesters
d) Gradonies
Answer: d
Explanation: Gradonies can be used to convert wastelands into agricultural lands. In this, narrow trenches with buds on the downstream side are built along contours in the upper reaches of the catchment to collect run-off and to conserve moisture from the trees.
13. Organic agriculture advocates avoiding the use of_____________________
a) Organic manure
b) Stored water
c) Modern technologies in harvesting
d) Chemical fertilizers
Answer: d
Explanation: Organic agriculture advocates avoiding the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. This chemical fertilizers cause soil pollution and it also harms the health of organisms including humans which depend on plants for food.
14. Integrated pest management reduces the excess use of fertilizers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the ways to reduce the use of fertilizers and pesticides is by integrated pest management. This is a technique that uses a complete understanding of all the ecological aspects of a crop and the particular pests to which it is susceptible.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Marine Pollution”.
1. Which is the most input of waste causing marine pollution?
a) Pesticides
b) Pipes directly discharge waste into the sea
c) Death of aquatic organisms
d) Climatic conditions
Answer: b
Explanation: The most obvious input of waste for marine pollution is through pipes directly discharging waste into the sea. Very often, municipal waste and sewage waste from residences and industries in coastal towns are directly discharged into the sea.
2. Why ship accidents cause marine pollution?
a) Because if the ship carrying passengers to collapse it results in the death of many people
b) Because ship is very huge in its size
c) Dredged material which carries heavy metals cause marine pollution
d) Ship materials stuck inside the marine organisms
Answer: c
Explanation: Ship accidents and accidental spillages at sea damaging the marine environment. Shipping channels in estuaries and at the entrances to ports often require dredging to keep them open. This dredged material contains heavy metals which contaminates the water.
3. Which of the following is the greatest volume of waste discharge to water?
a) Spillage from oil pipelines
b) Sewage
c) Nuclear waste
d) Spillage from tankers
Answer: b
Explanation: The greatest volume of waste discharged to water is sewage, which is primarily organic in nature and is degraded by bacterial activity. Using the oxygen present in the water, these wastes are broken down into stable inorganic compounds.
4. When does the rate of aerobic oxidation reduced in the sewage that is reduced to the water?
a) When oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l
b) When oxygen concentration falls below 2.5 mg/l
c) When oxygen concentration falls below 3.5 mg/l
d) When oxygen concentration falls below 4.5 mg/l
Answer: a
Explanation: When the oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l, the rate of aerobic oxidation is reduced and replaced by anaerobic bacteria that can oxidizes the organic molecules without the use of oxygen.
5. Which of the following way is used to reduce the pollution load on marine water?
a) Manual cleaning of pollutants
b) Damping the pollutants during winter
c) Introducing sewage treatment plants
d) Ban the license of industries which are near to the sea
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the best ways of reducing the pollution load on marine waters is by introducing sewage treatment plants. This will reduce the biological oxygen demand of the final product before it is discharged to water.
6. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill considered amongst the largest oil spills in history.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Deepwater Horizon oil spill, also known as the Gulf of Mexico oil spill occurred on 10 April 2010. It caused a catastrophic explosion on the Deepwater Horizon offshore oil drilling platform. Hundreds of millions of liters have been split to date. This affects the habitats of thousands of marine organisms.
7. What is the reason that oil pollution attracts the greatest attention?
a) Because of the volume
b) Because of the density
c) Because of the mass
d) Because of the visibility
Answer: d
Explanation: Oil pollution of the sea normally attracts the greatest attention because of its visibility. They visible to the greater range because the pollution spread to the longer distance within a few hours. This pollution cause damaging to the marine ecosystems.
8. The natural process of emulsification of oil in water can be accelerated through the use of chemical dispersants.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A variety of slick-lickers in which a continuous belt of absorbent material dips through the oil slick and is passed through rollers to extract the oil have been designed. Rocks and harbour walls can be cleaned with high pressure steam or dispersants.
This set of Environment Management MCQs focuses on “Effects and Control Measures of Marine Pollution”.
1. What is the first step in primary sewage treatment plants?
a) Fine screening
b) Course screening
c) Chlorination
d) Primary settling tank
Answer: b
Explanation: Sewage treatment is one of the efficient ways to reduce the pollution load happening on marine waters. The primary treatment first undergoes for course screening which then proceeds to other steps like fine screening and all.
2. What is called for the removal of sand, gravel in the primary treatment of sewage treatment plant?
a) Course screening
b) Fine screening
c) Grit removal
d) Chlorination
Answer: c
Explanation: The removal of sand and gravel from the sewage in the primary treatment of sewage plant is known as grit removal. This is the third step in primary treatment after course screening and fine screening.
3. What is called for the place where lighter, organic material settles in the primary treatment of sewage plant?
a) Primary settling tank
b) Secondary settling tank
c) Grit chamber
d) Coursing chamber
Answer: c
Explanation: The place where lighter and organic material settles in the primary treatment of sewage plant is called as grit chamber. This chamber comes after the screening of influent by removing the pollutants.
4. Where can we find rotating arm sprays in sewage treatment?
a) Primary treatment
b) Secondary treatment of trickling filter
c) Secondary treatment of activated sludge process
d) Secondary process of oxidation pool
Answer: b
Explanation: Rotating arm sprays water over rocks can be seen in secondary treatment of trickling filter. Rotating arm is followed by a circular bed of first size rocks and filter. That treated wastewater along with slim goes to secondary settling tank, which treats the water.
5. In which secondary treatment of sewage treatment sludge is broken down in an anaerobic digester?
a) Oxidation pool
b) Activated sludge process
c) Trickling filter
d) Bed filter
Answer: b
Explanation: In sedimentation tank, during sludge treatment sludge is broken down in an anaerobic digester. The digester sludge is pumped onto sludge drying beds. The dried sludge is a good source of manure.
6. In sewage treatment of oxidation pond we can see the water up to 2 meters deep.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In oxidation pond of the secondary treatment of sewage treatment plants the influent is transferred into effluent. Partially treated sewage is directed to settle 2 meters deep in a vessel. This vessel settles the pollutants inside and floats the pollutant free water upwards.
7. In which of the following treatment of sewage plant we can find disinfection as a step?
a) Secondary process of oxidation pool
b) Secondary treatment of trickling filter
c) Primary treatment
d) Advanced sewage treatment
Answer: d
Explanation: We can find disinfection as a step in advanced sewage treatment. Influent after primary and secondary treatment proceeds to chemical treatment and then to filtration and then to disinfection process after this effluent comes out.
8. How many percentage of BOD removes in primary treatment?
a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 35%
d) 45%
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary treatment involves various processes like screening which is proceeding by sedimentation where pollutants are removed during sedimentation. Primary treatment normally removes about 35% of the BOD and 60% of the suspended particles.
9. What is the main objective of secondary treatment of sewage plants?
a) To remove the suspended particles
b) To remove the contaminants
c) To remove the BOD
d) To remove the organic material
Answer: c
Explanation: The main objective of secondary treatment of sewage plants is to remove most of the BOD. BOD decided the contamination of water pollutants. Secondary treatment of sewage treatment can remove at least 85% of the BOD.
10. How many common approaches are used in secondary treatment?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: Three commonly used approaches are used in the secondary treatment of sewage plants. The three commonly used approaches are trickling filters where we can see rotating arm, activated sludge process where we can see aeration tank and the last one is oxidation pond.
11. What is the meaning of ‘Tainting’ related to marine pollution?
a) Unpleasant flavor of seafood
b) Unpleasant flavor of water
c) Unpleasant flavor of soil
d) Unpleasant flavor of air
Answer: a
Explanation: Tainting imparts an unpleasant flavor to fish and seafood and is detectable even at extremely low levels of contamination. Thus, the economic loss from oil slicks on fish and shellfish happens.
12. When drill cutting dumped on the seabed which toxic is produced?
a) Toxic nitrites
b) Toxic fluorides
c) Toxic sulphides
d) Toxic hydrates
Answer: c
Explanation: When drill cuttings dumped on the seabed and it creates anoxic conditions. These anoxic conditions result in the production of toxic sulphides in the bottom sediment, thus eliminating the benthic fauna.
13. What happens if liquid oil contaminates a bird’s plumage?
a) Birds bone become week
b) Birds lost its memory
c) Birds digestive system becomes weak
d) Birds lost its water-repellent properties
Answer: d
Explanation: If liquid oil contaminates a bird’s plumage, its water-repellant properties are lost. Water then penetrates the plumage and displaces the air trapped between the feathers and skin. With this, the plumage becomes water-logged and the birds may sink and drown.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Noise Pollution and its Effects”.
1. What is noise?
a) Desirable sound
b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound
d) Undesirable and wanted sound
Answer: c
Explanation: Noise is defined as an undesirable and unwanted sound. Noise pollution affects human health and can contribute o a general deterioration of environmental quality. Several sources of noise pollution contribute to both indoor and outdoor noise pollution.
2. In which unit sound is measured?
a) Kilometer
b) Pascal
c) Kilogram
d) Decibel
Answer: d
Explanation: Noise pollution is measured in terms of decibel . This parameter depends on the various environmental conditions. If the decibel level increased than the threshold it causes problems to humans and other organisms.
3. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?
a) Air pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution
d) Soil pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise pollution can cause various health impacts on humans and other organisms. This health impacts leads to various issues like reduced in the mental health, hearing loss either temporary or permanent, loss in efficiency and many more.
4. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
a) 0
b) 10
c) 50
d) 100
Answer: a
Explanation: Decibel of the threshold of hearing is 0, for the rustle of leaves the dB is 10, for broadcasting studio dB is 20 and for Bedroom at night the dB is 30. This dB various based on the noise and the environmental conditions.
5. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
a) 100
b) 110
c) 120
d) 146
Answer: d
Explanation: Threshold of pain is described as the maximum level in which one can sustain the noise after this the noise and cause several health related issues and it even damage the hearing capacity permanently or temporarily.
6. All sound is noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Not all sound is noise. Sound is the voice below of the threshold of pain where organisms can listen to the voice without any struggle. But noise is the disturbance that arises in the sound and cause problems to organisms.
7. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 146
d) 150
Answer: d
Explanation: Instantaneous rapture of the membrane occurs at the decibel of 150. Threshold of pain is caused at the decibel of 146. If the noise level increased to 150 decibels than within no time there will be an instantaneous rupture of membrane occurs.
8. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB
b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB
d) 55 dB
Answer: b
Explanation: The ambient noise level in residential zone during night period is 45 dB. During day time the ambient noise levels in the residential area are 55 dB. Ambient noise levels are different for commercial zone and industrial zones.
9. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?
a) Temporary ear pain
b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift
d) Temporary hearing shift
Answer: c
Explanation: Temporary hearing loss is often called a ‘temporary threshold shift’. People suffering from this condition are unable to detect weak sounds. If a person got this problem, hearing ability is usually recovered within a month of exposure.
10. What is the permissible noise limit of 120 db?
a) 30 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 1 minute
d) 30 seconds
Answer: d
Explanation: One can hear 120 db for a duration of 30 seconds. For 30 seconds the permissible noise limits is 120 db. If someone hear more than this duration there are high chances of hearing loss and other mental health issues.
11. At what level a sound becomes physical pain?
a) Above 50 dB
b) Above 70 dB
c) Above 80 dB
d) Above 100 dB
Answer: c
Explanation: Sound is measured in terms of decibels . World Health Organization prescribed optimum noise level as 45 db during day time and 35 db during night time. Anything above 80 db is hazardous.
12. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?
a) Heavy machinery
b) Transportation equipment
c) Loud noise
d) Music
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the above options music is the only sound which pleasant our ears rest of the sounds cause irritation by its unpleasant noise and cause damage to the hearing permanently or temporarily.
13. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals dependent on_______________
a) Noise
b) Sound
c) Actions
d) Behavior
Answer: b
Explanation: Animals develop a better sense of hearing than us since their survival depends on it. Wildlife faces far more problems than humans because wildlife depends on sound to protect themselves from enemies more than humans.
14. The degree of hearing loss depends on the duration as well as the intensity of the noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For example, one hour of exposure to a 100 db sound level can produce a temporary threshold shift that may last for about one day. In factories workers subjected to high sounds for several hours in a day. It will cause hearing loss and other mental issues.
This set of Environment Management Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Noise Pollution Control Techniques”.
1. How many fundamental ways in which noise can b controlled?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four fundamental ways in which noise can be controlled. a) Reduce noise at the source. b) Block the path of noise. c) Increase the path length. d) Protect the recipient. These four noise controlling ways reduce the noise pollution.
2. Which is the best way to control noise pollution among the four fundamental ways?
a) Reduce noise at the source
b) Block the path of noise
c) Increase the path length
d) Protect the recipient
Answer: a
Explanation: The best control method for noise pollution is to reduce the noise levels at the source. We a noise is reduced at the source tan pollution won’t occurrence in the proceeding steps and thus it won’t affect any organisms.
3. How can we reduce the noise in industries?
a) By not using the heavy machinery
b) By using rigid sealed enclosures
c) By using more robotics
d) By reduce the production of the industries
Answer: b
Explanation: In industries, noise reduction can be done by using rigid sealed enclosures around machinery, lined with acoustic absorbing material. Isolated machines and their enclosures from the floor can reduce the noise pollution at the source.
4. What is the main source of vehicular noise?
a) High speed
b) Movement of the vehicle’s tyres on the pavement
c) Low pressure
d) Fuel engine
Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the vehicular noise comes from the movement of the vehicle’s tyres on the pavement and wind resistance. Poorly maintained vehicles can also increase the noise pollution in the vehicles.
5. Which of the following is a way to reduce the traffic noise in the highway?
a) Constructing the vertical barriers
b) Increase the speed of the vehicles
c) Using old engine vehicles
d) Horning in unnecessary time
Answer: a
Explanation: The path of traffic noise can be locked by constructing vertical barriers along the highways. Proper highway planning and design are essential for controlling traffic noise. Establishing lower speed limits for highways also reduced the noise.
6. Noise levels at construction sites can be controlled using proper construction planning and scheduling techniques.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise levels at construction sites can be controlled using proper construction planning and scheduling techniques. Certain techniques should be used in order to reduce the noise generated by machineries. Avoid construction timings during the night in order to disturbed the surrounding places.
7. What is the best way to reduce the noise pollution around houses?
a) Throwing all noisy machines
b) Built a noise resistant shield across the house
c) Use of ear buds to reduce the noise
d) Planting trees around houses
Answer: d
Explanation: To block the path of noise, planting trees around houses can be an effective way. In some situations trees will reduce noise levels up to 50% but to be effective we need a trees barrier that is at least 50 feet deep.
8. In order to reduce the roadside noise which of the following product Australian Government designed?
a) Sound tube
b) Ear buds
c) Ear repellent
d) Noise repellent
Answer: a
Explanation: In Melbourne, Australia a special instrument called as a sound tube is designed. This sound tube reduced the roadway noise without detracting from the area’s aesthetics and thus it lowers the noise pollution.
9. What is the best way to reduce aircraft noise?
a) By using shield around aircraft
b) By using quieter jet engines
c) By using heavy propellants
d) By using white paint
Answer: b
Explanation: Aircraft noise can be reduced significantly by using quieter jet engines. The old engines which cause more noise should be replaced by the new engines which cause less noise. Altering paths and time of day runway is also reduced the noise pollution.
10. What is used during sleep in order to avoid noise pollution?
a) Mask
b) Earplugs
c) Cotton shirts
d) Jackets
Answer: b
Explanation: Earplugs reduced the noise pollution which can help humans to sleep peacefully. Earplugs are a cheap drugstore purchase that makes humans sleep by barring the noise. Noise canceling headphones are also used while sleeping to reduce noise.
11. How does a car in good condition can cause less pollution?
a) It goes in high speed
b) It requires less fuel
c) It gives safety
d) It avoids muffler chugging down the streets
Answer: d
Explanation: The sound of a car without a muffler chugging down the street reduces the noise pollution. Keeping car in good and quiet working order reduces the amount of noise it generates and thus it gives a great impact on noise.
12. Which of the following way reduce noise pollution?
a) Turn on the loud devices
b) Turn on white noise
c) Using old engines vehicles
d) Bursting crackers
Answer: b
Explanation: Turning on white noise can reduce the harsh noise. Turn on white noise is a counterintuitive, adding more pleasant noise on top of other noise. For example, the drone of a fan can be a pleasant white noise if you have a quality fan.
13. Which of the following steps can take by government in order to reduce the noise pollution?
a) Enforcement of all noise laws
b) Constructing more roads
c) Increasing the number of vehicles
d) Not to create awareness about the noise pollution
Answer: a
Explanation: Enforcement of all noise laws is variable and often subjective. Even where laws exist, municipalities may not have sufficient noise enforcement personnel who are well trained and also a person who is an ability to monitor noise compliance.
14. Drown out of noise with pleasant sounds can reduce noise pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Drown out the noise with pleasant sounds are a natural choice that serves the purpose to eliminate unpleasant noise while filling the space where sounds that give pleasure. Pleasant music, sounds of ocean, etc are few examples.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Legal Acts of Noise Pollution”.
1. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2007
Answer: a
Explanation: The Noise Pollution Rules established in 2000. They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the official gazette. In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires, ‘Act’, ‘Area’, ‘Authority’, ‘Person’ and ‘State Government’.
2. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?
a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am
b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am
d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
Answer: d
Explanation: A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used between 10:00 pm to 6:00 am, except in closed premises or communication within auditoria, conference rooms, community halls and banquet halls, etc.
3. When can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: A person can complaint to the authority if the noise level exceeds the ambient noise standards by 10 dB or more given in the corresponding columns against any area, make a complaint to the authority.
4. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?
a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
Answer: b
Explanation: Silence zone is defined as an area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals, education institutes and courts. The silence zones are zones which are declared as such by the competent authority.
5. When did the Factories Act constitute in India?
a) 1930
b) 1947
c) 1948
d) 1956
Answer: c
Explanation: The Factories Act is constituted in 1948 in India. Section 11 of the Act stipulates that every factory shall be kept clean, without having any nuisance. The word nuisance may include noise and thus it regulates the workers safety.
6. The State Government shall take measures for abatement of noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The State Government shall take measures for abatement of noise including noise emanating from vehicular movements and ensures that the existing noise levels do not exceed the ambient air quality standards.
7. Which Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires
b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Answer: d
Explanation: A draft of Noise Pollution Rules was published under the notification of the Government of India in 1999 under the Ministry of Environment and Forests vide number S.O. 528 . This Act maintaining noise pollution.
8. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983
b) 1984
c) 1988
d) 1990
Answer: c
Explanation: The Motor Vehicles Act through various sections empowers a state government to frame rules for the upkeep of motor vehicles and control of noise produced by them. Strong implementation of this Act will reduce the noise pollution efficiently.
9. One of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is__________________
a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential areas
Answer: d
Explanation: The Aircrafts Act has many provisions but none for the control of noise. In this regard it is suggested that aerodromes be constructed far away from the residential areas of a city in order to protect residents from the noise of aircrafts.
10. In which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12
b) Section 15
c) Section 18
d) Section 19
Answer: b
Explanation: Any person who violating the noise pollution rules will be liable for penalty under the Act. Section 15 of the Act provides that any person contravening the provisions of the Act be punishable with imprisonment or fine.
11. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?
a) 70
b) 75
c) 77
d) 80
Answer: d
Explanation: Decibel is the unit of noise. There are different noise limits for vehicles as well depending upon the capacity of their engines. 80 db is the standard noise limit which has been accepted by Government of India for heavy vehicles.
12. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db
b) 80 db
c) 85 db
d) 100 db
Answer: a
Explanation: Ambient air quality standards in respect to noise various from one zone to another and it also various for day time and also for night time. The ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time are 75 db and during night it is 70 db.
13. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
a) 1974
b) 1981
c) 1988
d) 1994
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise though not defined in any statute but it is included as environmental pollutants in Section of the Air Act 1981. After this included noise is recognized as a kind of air pollution and steps are taken to control it efficiently.
14. Loud speakers cause noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Extensive use of loud speakers whether for political meetings, religious functions, marriages, musical nights, etc are most disturbing source of noise to the urban dwellers in particular and strong action must be take regarding this.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Thermal Pollution”.
1. What is called when an industry removes water from a source and then returns the heated water to its source?
a) Water pollution
b) Soil pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Thermal pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal pollution occurs when an industry removes water from a source, uses the water for cooling purposes, and then returns the heated water to its source such as lakes, rivers and even oceans.
2. Which one of the following can cause thermal pollution?
a) Residential houses
b) Power plants
c) Death of marine organisms
d) Oil spill
Answer: b
Explanation: Power plants can cause thermal pollution. Thermal pollution refers to the degradation of water quality as a result of any process that changes the ambient water temperature. Power plants discharge heated water, which is at least 15 Celsius higher than the normal and it is back into a water body.
3. What is the effect of warmer temperature to the fishes?
a) Increase the metabolism
b) Decrease the metabolism
c) Stabilize the metabolism
d) Increase the solubility of oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: The warmer temperature decreases the solubility of oxygen and increase the metabolism of fish. This changes the ecological balance of the river. Within certain limits, thermal additions can promote the certain fish and fish catch may be high in the vicinity of a power plant.
4. What is the disadvantage of control measures of thermal pollution by passing the heated water?
a) Water is lost due to leakage
b) Water is lost due to absorption
c) Water is lost due to dilution
d) Water is lost due to evaporation
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal pollution can be controlled by passing the heated water through a large shallow cooling pond into which hot water is pumped and a cooling tower after it leaves the condenser. In both the cases large amounts of water are lost to evaporation.
5. Which one of the following cause thermal pollution?
a) Release of cold water
b) Organic manures
c) Purified water
d) More number of trees
Answer: a
Explanation: Release of cold water caused thermal pollution apart for that none of the above given options contribute for thermal pollution. Many industries liberate very cool water from their reservoirs. This water when mixed up with warm water rivers it creates a misbalance in the water bodies.
6. Growing industrial activities is one of the reasons for thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Growing industrial activities gives a repenting feeling to know that thermal pollutants are increasing day by day because of the growing industrial activities. Therefore, thermal pollution is also growing.
7. How does soil erosion cause thermal pollution?
a) By making natural water bodies to hold in its normal level
b) By polluting the water bodies
c) By avoiding sunlight to fall on the water bodies
d) By making natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level
Answer: d
Explanation: Soil erosion is one of the main causes of thermal pollution. Soil erosion makes natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level. Thus, they get more exposed to sunlight and cause thermal pollution.
8. What is a thermal shock?
a) Sudden raises of temperature to abnormal level
b) Sudden cooling of temperature to abnormal level
c) Temperature don’t change
d) Temperature change only due to environmental factors
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal shock resulting in a rise in temperature of water bodies. When industries and factories dispose the water into water bodies the temperature suddenly raises to an abnormal level. This acts as a thermal shock for aquatic life.
9. What is the main effect of thermal pollution to the oxygen solubility in water bodies?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
b) They maintain the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
d) They don’t cause any affect in solubility of oxygen to the water bodies
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the main effects of thermal pollution is they reduced the solubility of oxygen in water bodies. This less solubility of oxygen in water mainly affects the metabolism of water animals and thus it leads to death of aquatic animals.
10. Which of the following is the main reason for thermal pollution?
a) Bio fuels
b) Organic farming
c) Eco friendly vehicles
d) Power plants
Answer: d
Explanation: Power plants are the main reasons behind growing thermal pollution. Because power plants use water as a cooling agent for cooling down their machines. This used water is in high temperature and it is released back to the water bodies and cause thermal pollution.
11. How does an artificial lake help in solving thermal pollution?
a) It stores heated water
b) It gives a good aesthetic view
c) It helps to breed fishes
d) It is used during the summer season where water scarcity cause
Answer: a
Explanation: Artificial lakes help in preventing thermal pollution. In artificial lakes, heated water can be stored easily. These lakes are very helpful for normalizing the temperature of the hot water. Hot water will not disposed back to the natural water bodies.
12. What is called for the useless heat from hot water recycled by industries?
a) Cooling towers
b) Recycling
c) Heat pump
d) Co-generation
Answer: d
Explanation: Co-generation can be helpful to combat thermal pollution. In the process of co-generation, the useless heat from hot water can be recycled and used smartly in many tasks by industries. Thus this process prevents thermal pollution.
13. Generally how many types of cooling towers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the cooling towers are of two types they are, wet cooling tower and the dry cooling tower. In wet cooling tower, the heated water gets spread upon the flow directing panels. In the dry cooling tower, the heated water is made to flow in circular elongated pipes.
14. Runoff from paved surfaces can cause thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Urban runoff discharged to surface likes roads and parking lots can make the water warmer. During summer seasons, the pavement gets quite hot, which creates warm runoff that gets into the sewer systems and water bodies and causes thermal pollution.
This set of Environment Management Puzzles focuses on “Hazardous Waste”.
1. When can we classify waste as hazardous?
a) When waste won’t cause any mortality
b) When waste increase mortality
c) When waste decrease mortality
d) When waste decompose itself without any aid
Answer: b
Explanation: Waste is normally classified as hazardous when it causes an increase in mortality o an increase in series irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness or the environment when improperly treated or disposed.
2. Based on how many primary characteristics we can classified waste as hazardous?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: Waste is classified as hazardous if it exhibits any four primary characteristics based on the physical or chemical properties of toxicity, reactivity, ignitability and corrosivity. In addition to these waste products is also classified as hazardous.
3. What is a toxic waste?
a) Substances those are not poisonous
b) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in large quantity
c) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in small quantity
d) Substances which work as an antidote for toxic materials
Answer: c
Explanation: Toxic wastes are substances that are poisonous even in very small or trace amounts. Some may have an acute effect on humans causing death, others may have a chronic or long term effect, slowly causing irreparable harm to humans and other organisms.
4. Why chronic toxicity is difficult to determine?
a) Because there is no cure for that
b) Because it causes only little problems
c) Because effects can be seen immediately
d) Because effects may not be seen for years
Answer: d
Explanation: Chronic toxicity is much difficult to determine because the effects may not be seen for years. One of the examples of chronic toxicity is cancer which can’t find immediately. Certain toxic wastes are known to be carcinogenic and others may be mutagenic.
5. Which of the following have a tendency to react vigorously with water or air?
a) Toxic waste
b) Reactive waste
c) Corrosive waste
d) Infectious waste
Answer: b
Explanation: Reactive waste is that which has a tendency to react vigorously with air or water. It is unstable to shock or heat, generates toxic gases or explodes during routine management such as gunpowder.
6. Modern society doesn’t produce a large quantity of hazardous waste.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Modern society produces hazardous waste. It produces large quantities of hazardous waste generated by chemical manufacturing companies, petroleum refineries, paper mills, smelters and other industries.
7. What is an ignitable waste?
a) Waste which can burn relatively low temperatures
b) Waste which can burn relatively high temperatures
c) Waste which don’t burn
d) Waste which don’t produce temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: Ignitable waste is that which burns at relatively low temperatures say less than 60 Celsius. It is capable of spontaneous combustion during storage, transport or disposal gasoline, paint thinners and alcohol.
8. What kind of reactions happens in corrosive waste?
a) Physical
b) Electro-chemical
c) Biological
d) Chemical
Answer: d
Explanation: In corrosive waste the reaction that happens is chemical. Corrosive waste is that which destroys materials and living tissue by chemical reaction such as acid and bases and thus cause hazardous to organisms.
9. Where we can get radioactive wastes?
a) Small scale industries
b) Houses
c) Nuclear power plants
d) Vehicular wastes
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear power plants are the source for radioactive wastes. Radioactive waste is the output from nuclear power plants that can persist in the environment for thousands of years before it decays and cause hazardous to the environment.
10. Which of the following is a hazardous substance?
a) Gold
b) Lead
c) Copper
d) Iron
Answer: b
Explanation: Lead is a hazardous substance often referred to as heavy metals. Lead is abundant heavy metal and is relatively easy to obtain. Most of the lead absorbed by people and wildlife is stored in the bones.
11. How do PCBs impact on birds?
a) They decrease the memory
b) They cause reproductive failure
c) They cause bird flu
d) They cause indigestion
Answer: b
Explanation: PCBs is one of the hazardous waste that impact on greater extent to environment. These PCBs can cause reproductive failure in birds and mammals. Thus this kind of hazardous waste use must be use in limited quantity with precautionary measures.
12. Vinyl chloride is widely used in the manufacture of______________
a) Glass
b) Agricultural chemicals
c) Storage of aquatic foods
d) Plastics
Answer: d
Explanation: Vinyl chloride is a chemical that is widely used in the manufacture of plastic. A long continuous exposure in humans can cause deafness, vision problems and bone deformities. Vinyl chloride also causes birth defects.
13. In order to dispose hazardous waste where there are no abundant lands which method is used?
a) Land disposal
b) Burning
c) Floats in water bodies
d) Incineration
Answer: d
Explanation: The most common methods for disposing of hazardous waste are land disposal and incineration. In countries where there is abundant land available for disposal land disposal is used and countries where there is no abundant land incineration method is used.
14. The use of polyvinyl chloride can be lowered by reducing the use of plastic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride use can lowered the use of plastics. In plastic PCBs is the essential substitute by using polyvinyl chloride we can reduce the use of plastic. By reducing waste, recycling and using products which are durable we can reduce the consumption of chemicals which are causing hazardous to the environment.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid Waste”.
1. Which was the first city to an established system of waste removal?
a) Lahore
b) Athens
c) Paris
d) London
Answer: b
Explanation: In ancient cities, food scraps and other waste were simply thrown onto the unpaved streets where they accumulated and cause various diseases. Around 320 BC in Athens, the first known law forbidding this practice was established.
2. Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?
a) Because it is very costly
b) Because it requires modern technologies
c) Because it cause several environmental issues
d) Because it requires lot of space
Answer: c
Explanation: Burning waste is not an acceptable practice, because if we look into environmental or health prospective burning waste creates lots of pollution and it is harmful to both environment and as well as organisms.
3. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?
a) Integrated waste management plan
b) Recycling of waste management plan
c) Reducing of waste management plan
d) Use of waste management plan
Answer: a
Explanation: The disposal of solid waste should be part of an integrated waste management plan. This integrated solid waste management is the method of collection, processing, resource recovery and final disposal of solid waste.
4. The term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ is used to describe which kind of solid waste?
a) Hazardous
b) Toxic
c) Non hazardous
d) Non toxic
Answer: a
Explanation: The term ‘municipal Solid Waste’ is generally used to describe most of the non-hazardous solid waste from a city, town or village that requires routine collection and transport to a processing or disposal site.
5. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: An integrated waste management strategy includes three main components they are source reduction, recycling and disposal. All these three types plays an important role in the solid waste management.
6. Municipal Solid Waste contains a wide variety of materials.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: MSW contains a wide variety of materials. It can contain food waste which is classified as wet garbage and paper, plastic, tetra packs, plastic cans, glass bottles, metal items, wood pieces, aluminum foil and many more items.
7. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?
a) Source reduction
b) Recycling
c) Disposal
d) Burning
Answer: a
Explanation: Source reduction is one of the fundamental ways to reduce waste. On an individual level, we can reduce the use of unnecessary items while shopping, avoid buying disposable items and avoid using plastic carry bags.
8. Which of the following can be recycled many times?
a) Plastic
b) Wood
c) Organic materials
d) Aluminum
Answer: d
Explanation: Recycling is reusing some components of the waste that has some economic value. Aluminum can be recycled many times. Mining of new aluminum is expensive hence recycling of aluminum plays a significant role in aluminum industry.
9. Why plastics are difficult to recycle?
a) Because it is very hard material
b) Because it is very adhesive in its nature
c) Because of different types of polymer resins
d) Because of different sizes of plastic
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastic are difficult to recycle because of the different types of polymer resins in their production. Since each type has a distinct chemical composition, different plastics cannot be recycled together.
10. How many key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The three key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill that distinguish it from an open dump are: Solid waste is placed in a suitably selected and prepared landfill site, the waste material is spread out and compacted with appropriate heavy machinery, the waste is covered each day with a layer of compacted soil.
11. How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation
b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water
d) By the soil particles
Answer: b
Explanation: The organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose due to the action of microorganisms. At first the waste decomposes aerobically until the oxygen that was present in the freshly placed fill is used up by the aerobic microorganisms.
12. What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions?
a) Landfill
b) Recycling
c) Vermicomposting
d) Incineration
Answer: d
Explanation: Incineration is a chemical process in which the combustible portion of the waste is combined with oxygen forming carbon dioxide and water, which are released into the atmosphere. Suitable temperature and operating conditions are required to achieve for incineration.
13. Why the recycled paper is banned for use in food containers?
a) Because it creates contamination
b) Because it creates a lot of spaces
c) Because paper can be used only one time
d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
Answer: a
Explanation: Recycled paper is banned for use in food containers to prevent the possibility of contamination. It very often costs less to transport raw-paper pulp than scrap paper. Collection, sorting and transport account for about 90% of the cost of paper recycling.
14. Land filling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal and it can be implemented easily.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Although land filling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal, it becomes increasingly difficult to find suitable landfilling sites within economic hauling distance. There will be a danger of some environmental damage in the form of leakage of leachate.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Industrial Pollution”.
1. What is called for the pollution that can be traced directly to industrial activity?
a) Soil pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Industrial pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: Industrial pollution is pollution which can be directly related to industry, in comparison to other pollution sources. Due to it’s and scope, industrial pollution is a serious problem for the entire planet.
2. Which of the following are the largest contributors to global pollution?
a) Soil pollution
b) Industrial pollution
c) Radioactive pollution
d) Water pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Industrial waste which creates industrial pollution is the largest contributors to global pollution which endangers the people and environment. Industrial pollution contaminates the environment.
3. Which of the following pollution majorly responsible for pollution in the United States?
a) Soil pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Industrial pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Environmental Protection Agency, it has been estimated that industrial pollution is responsible for almost 50 percent of the pollution present in the United States. This industrial pollution affect for ecological balance.
4. Which of the following is the consequence of industrial pollution?
a) Increase in the water level in seas
b) Releases of the hazardous radiations
c) Increase in the animals in forests
d) Global warming
Answer: d
Explanation: Global warming is one of the most common and serious consequences of industrial pollution. The emission of various greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane from various industries increases the overall temperature of the earth, resulting in global temperature.
5. How do industrial pollution results in water pollution?
a) Dumping of various waste products from industries
b) Taking water bodies places to built industries
c) Industries which uses all the water from the water bodies and cause scarcity of water
d) Building of purification unit in the industries
Answer: a
Explanation: Dumping of various industrial waste products into water sources and improper contamination of industrial wastes often result in polluting the water. This water pollution disturbs the balance of ecosystem.
6. Industrial pollution doesn’t contribute to air pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Industrial pollution is one of the major causes of air pollution. Increase in the number of industries and factories due to the industrial revolution, air pollution also increased significantly and creates an imbalance in the ecosystem.
7. Which one of the following is the prime factor towards soil pollution?
a) Soil erosion
b) Floods
c) Dumping of industrial wastes
d) Using land for irrigation
Answer: c
Explanation: Dumping of industrial wastes contain large amounts of various chemicals which get accumulated on the top layer of soil, resulting in loss of fertility of the soil. Such loss of fertility ultimately results in changes in the ecological balances.
8. Which one of the following industries produced Sulfur dioxide and flu ash as pollutants?
a) Textile industries
b) Cottage industries
c) Thermal industries
d) Coal industries
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal industries produced sulfur dioxide and flu as ash as pollutants. Sulfur dioxide is a colorless gas. In thermal industries a reduction in the atmosphere emissions of Sulfur dioxide produced by fossil fuel combustion.
9. Which one of the following is a mechanical means of treating industrial effluents?
a) Oxidation
b) Chlorination
c) Recycling of waste
d) Sedimentation
Answer: d
Explanation: Sedimentation refers to the process during which particles suspended in water tend to settle out. In another words sedimentation is the process of depositing sediment. Sedimentation is the building up of layers of small particles like sand or mud.
10. Which one of the following is not normally a pollutant?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Hydrocarbons
Answer: a
Explanation: Pollutants are the contaminations that make the environment impure and which don’t play a role in the maintenance of the environment in balance. Carbon dioxide plays an enormous role in the development and sustainability of all life.
11. Why industries pollute water?
a) Because they use water in large quantities
b) Because they release all the pollutants to water
c) Because industries don’t use water
d) Because water is an universal solvent
Answer: b
Explanation: Industries cause water pollution. Some industries need water in large amounts, they pollute water during use of it in their process. They release heavy metals, sediment pollution and other pollutants.
12. Which one of the following is the cause of industrial pollution?
a) Modern technologies
b) Efficient waste disposal
c) Efficient government policies
d) Unplanned industrial growth
Answer: d
Explanation: After the industrial revolution there has been a raising rate of waste from cities to small towns that has affected the life of organisms including humans. The main reason for this is unplanned in industrial growth.
13. Which one of the following is the main cause of air pollution?
a) Decrease in the factories
b) Increase in the factories
c) Increase in the seawater level
d) Increase in the modern technologies
Answer: b
Explanation: Industrial pollution is one of the main causes of air pollution. Increase in factories and manufacturing processes both large and small scale, gaseous emissions have continued to compound. This makes industrial pollution one of the main causes of air pollution.
14. Industries require raw materials to be extracted from the ground such minerals cause soil pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Soil pollution can also be caused by industries. While extracting raw material from soil for industries it causes soil pollution. These leaks are creating problems in agriculture and are harmful for marine life.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Ganga Action Plans”.
1. Who prepared the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Department of Pollution
b) Department of Environment
c) Department of Rivers
d) Department of Industries
Answer: b
Explanation: Department of Environment prepared an action plan for an immediate reduction of pollution load on the river Ganga. The Cabinet approved the Ganga Action Plan as a 100 percent centrally sponsored scheme.
2. When did the Ganga Action Plan launched?
a) 1980
b) 1982
c) 1984
d) 1986
Answer: d
Explanation: The Ganga Action Plan was launched on 14 January 1986 by the then Prime Minister of India Rajeev Gandhi. The main objective of GAP is pollution abatement of the river Ganga and to improve the water quality by interception.
3. What is the authority constituted by Government of India for the implementation of the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Central River Authority
b) Central Ganga Authority
c) Ganga Implantation Scheme
d) State Ganga Authority
Answer: b
Explanation: For the implementation of the Ganga Action Plan and to lay down policies and programmes and maintenance of the Ganga Action Plan, Government of India constituted the Central Ganga Authority in February 1985.
4. When did the National River Conservation Directorate established?
a) 1991
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994
Answer: d
Explanation: Ganga Action Plan undergoes various changes in its implementation. First Central Ganga Authority later it is renamed as the National River Conservation Authority. The Government constituted the National River Conservation Directorate in June 1994.
5. When did Phase-2 of Ganga Action Plan started?
a) 1991
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994
Answer: c
Explanation: Phased-2 of Ganga Action Plan began from 1993 with the States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Delhi and Haryana were to implement the Phase-2 by treating 1912 mld still Ganga Action Plan didn’t complete its target.
6. Ganga Action Plan’s only objective is to clean Ganga water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Ganga Action Plan has various plans. The ultimate objective of the GAP is to have an approach of integrated river basin management considering abiotic and biotic ecosystems. To make resource recovery options.
7. Which is the top board in the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Standing Committee
b) National River Conservation Authority
c) Monitoring Committee
d) National River Conservation Directorate
Answer: b
Explanation: National River Conservation Authority is the top level board in Ganga Action Plan, it forms policies and sanctioned approvals. It is followed by Standing Committee, Monitoring Committee and National River Conservation Directorate.
8. Which state has the highest number of towns selected for Ganga Action Plan 1?
a) West Bengal
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Bihar
d) Haryana
Answer: a
Explanation: West Bengal has the highest number of selected towns for Ganga Action Plan with 15 towns. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar have 6 and 4 towns as directives from the Supreme Court. 6 towns in Haryana taken upon for GAP 1 as per as the direction of the Supreme Court.
9. For interception and diversion under GAP-2, how many schemes are sanctioned?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: The NRCD sanctioned 4 schemes of interception and diversion under the GAP-2. The implementing agencies could complete non till 2000, though stipulated dates for 3 schemes were already over.
10. Which authority laid sewer liner under GAP-2 in West Bengal?
a) Calcutta Municipality Development Authority
b) Bengal Municipality Development Authority
c) Calcutta Metropolitan Development Authority
d) Bengal Metropolitan Development Authority
Answer: c
Explanation: Calcutta Metropolitan Development Authority laid sewer lines under the GAP-2. The CMDA entrusted the work of construction of 3 pumping stations at Cossipore-Chitpur, West Bengal to a contractor in 1988.
11. How many interception and diversion schemes are sanctioned by NRCD in Uttar Pradesh?
a) 25
b) 28
c) 41
d) 51
Answer: d
Explanation: The NRCD sanctioned 51 interception and diversion schemes under the GAP-2. The Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam could complete only 30 out of 51 by March 2000. Stipulated dates of 17 of the remaining 21 schemes were over.
12. Which of the following is not an objective of the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Improve the water quality by interception
b) Treatment of domestic sewage
c) Pollution abatement
d) Increase the water content
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the above four options increase the water content is not an objective of Ganga Action Plan. All the remaining three options are the main objectives of Ganga Action Plan. Apart from the above three there are many more objectives are there.
13. In how many cities Rajiv Gandhi launched the creation of Ganga Action Plan when he was The Prime Minister of India.
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Answer: b
Explanation: Rajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India announced the creation of CGA. Rajiv Gandhi launched GAP in 5 major cities along the rivers. These cities included Kanpur, Haridwar, Varanasi and Allahabad.
14. The Ganga Action Plan is a successful scheme.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The Ganga Action Plan is a failure scheme. It was launched by the Government of India has failed miserably in its objectives. The pollution levels in Ganga are either same or even higher. The relationship between the quantity and quality, inflow and outflow, renewable energy and pollutant have not been understood, this led to the failure of the Ganga Action Plan.
This set of Tricky Environment Management Questions and Answers focuses on “Disaster Management”.
1. How much of India’s coastline is vulnerable to disasters?
a) 5000km
b) 5500km
c) 5700km
d) 6000km
Answer: c
Explanation: India’s coastline is vulnerable close to 5,700km out of the 7,516km long coastline. This coastline is vulnerable to cyclones and tsunamis. 68% of its cultivable area is vulnerable to droughts and its hilly areas are at risk from landslides and avalanches.
2. How much percentage of the landmass is prone to earthquakes in India?
a) Around 58%
b) Around 60%
c) Around 63%
d) Around 65%
Answer: a
Explanation: Large amount of Indian landmass is prone to earthquakes. 58.5 percent of the landmass is prone to earthquakes. These earthquakes various from moderate to very high intensity depending of the intensity happened.
3. How many hectares of Indian land are prone to floods and river erosion?
a) Around 25 million hectares
b) Around 30 million hectares
c) Around 35 million hectares
d) Around 40 million hectares
Answer: d
Explanation: Over 40 million hectares which is almost 12 percent of land is prone to floods and river erosion. These floods and river erosion cause various disasters for the life f human beings and other organisms including vegetations.
4. When did National Disaster Management Authority formed?
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
Answer: b
Explanation: National Disaster Management Authority was established through the Disaster Management Act enacted by the Government of India in May 30, 2005. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson.
5. Under which Ministry National Disaster Management Authority comes?
a) Ministry of Environment
b) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
c) Ministry of Pollution
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: d
Explanation: National Disaster Management Authority is an agency of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Primary purpose of National Disaster Management Authority is to coordinate response to the natural or manmade disaster.
6. Disaster Management refers to manage disaster response in the country.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Disaster Management plays a very important role in India. India has been traditionally vulnerable to the natural disasters on the account of its unique geographical conditions. Earthquakes, floods, droughts and many more recurrent phenomena occur.
7. Who heads the National Crisis Management Committee?
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Cabinet Secretary
d) Ministry of Environment
Answer: c
Explanation: Cabinet Secretary, who is the highest executive officer, heads the National Crisis Management Committee. Secretaries of all the concerned Departments as well as organizations are the members of the Committee.
8. What is called for the manuals that identify the role of each officer in State for managing the natural disasters?
a) State Relief Manuals
b) State Environmental Protection Manuals
c) State Disaster Manuals
d) State Protection Manuals
Answer: a
Explanation: Each State Government has relief manuals which identify the role of each officer in the State for managing the natural disaster, such manuals are called as State Relief Manuals. These are reviewed and updated periodically.
9. Who released the first Disaster Management Plan of India?
a) H. D. Deve gowda
b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c) Manmohan Singh
d) Narendra Modi
Answer: d
Explanation: Narendra Modi released the first Disaster Management Plan of India on 1 June 2016. This plan seeks to provide a framework and direction to government agencies for prevention, mitigation and management of disasters.
10. When did the Disaster Management formed?
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
Answer: a
Explanation: The Disaster Management At was formed in 23 December 2005. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 has 11 chapters and 79 sections that extend to the whole India. The Act provides for the effective management of disasters.
11. When was Asian Disaster Preparedness Center established?
a) 1980
b) 1986
c) 1990
d) 996
Answer: b
Explanation: Asian Disaster Preparedness Center established in 1986 as a technical capacity building center. It I an independent regional non-profit organization that works to build the resilience of people and institutions to disaster and climate change impacts in Asia and Pacific.
12. Where is National Institute of Disaster Management located?
a) Bengaluru
b) Mumbai
c) New Delhi
d) Kanpur
Answer: c
Explanation: National Institute of Disaster management is premier Institute for training and capacity development programs for managing natural disasters in India. It is constituted under an Act Of Parliament in 1995.
13. Where is International Tsunami Center located?
a) New York
b) London
c) Mysore
d) Honolulu
Answer: d
Explanation: International Tsunami Center is located in Honolulu, United States. It was created in 1965 by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization .
14. When do we celebrate as International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction?
a) March 1
b) April 15
c) September 12
d) October 13
Answer: d
Explanation: Every year October 13 is celebrated as International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction. It was started in 1989, after a call by the United Nations General Assembly for a day to promote a global culture of risk-awareness and disaster reduction.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Management of Forests”.
1. What are the three R’s that are used to save the environment which includes forest?
a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
b) Reserve, Reduce, Recycle
c) Reuse, Reserve, Reduce
d) Reserve, Reuse, Reduce
Answer: a
Explanation: The three R’s which are used to save the environment which includes forest are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle. Reduce is the first step towards effective waste management. Reuse helps in reducing waste that needs to be recycled. Recycle helps in the prevention of pollution.
2. How many National Parks are there in India as of 2015?
a) 88
b) 96
c) 106
d) 179
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 88 national parks are there in India. In 1970, we only had 5 National Parks. Then came the Project Tiger in 1972, and we have added quite a few national parks after the Project Tiger which are playing important role.
3. How much area is under the forest cover in India?
a) Around 610000 sq km
b) Around 670000 sq km
c) Around 710000 sq km
d) Around 750000 sq km
Answer: c
Explanation: Forest Survey of India published the statistics of forest area of various states a union territory in 2017. According to this statistics 708273 square kilometers of forest land is covered in the country.
4. Which community of Rajasthan Have religious belief for conservation of forest and wildlife?
a) Haddi
b) Bishnoi
c) Rajput
d) Thakur
Answer: b
Explanation: Bishnoi community was founded by Lord Jambheshwar, the preserver of all that’s created on earth. The Bishnois consider trees as sacred, they protect the entire ecosystem that exists in their village.
5. Which one of the following movement was carried out for the conservation of forests and the environment?
a) Forest movement
b) Ganaga Action Plan
c) Tehri Andolan
d) Chipko Andolan
Answer: d
Explanation: Chipko Andolan is a nonviolent social and ecological movement by rural villagers particularly women’s in India in the 1970s. It was aimed at protecting trees and forest slated for government-backed logging.
6. Forest management has various scopes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Forest management encompasses a very wide scope and is becoming more important due to climate change and global warming which are encountering today. India is very diverse in its natural resources and vegetation, hence forest management plays an important role.
7. Which of the following is not a principle of Chugach National Forest?
a) The forest service is governed by many existing laws
b) National Forest System lands are managed for multiple uses
c) It provides subsistence uses for rural residents of Alaska
d) It doesn’t collaborate with interested Native Alaskan tribes
Answer: d
Explanation: A set of fundamental principles will guide the management of the Chugach National Forest. It is actively collaborate with interested Native Alaskan tribes, state and federal agencies and individuals in the management of forests.
8. Which country leads in the producing and consuming of forest products?
a) Nepal
b) Kenya
c) India
d) United States
Answer: d
Explanation: The United States is the world’s leading producer and consumer of forest products, accounting for more than one-quarter of the world’s production and consumption of the forest products.
9. Which of the following is not the best way to fight a forest fire?
a) Evacuate from the forest surrounding places
b) Not using water as a fire suppression tool
c) Deploy suppressant foam
d) Create a fire line
Answer: b
Explanation: Water is the best tool to suppress the fire. When fire crews arrive at a forest fire, they st up power pumps at the closest water source that they can find, and then they run to suppresses the fire. Water can stops the spreading of forest fire and it suppresses the remaining fire.
10. What is the full form of JFM with related to Forest Management?
a) Joint Forest Management
b) Junior Forest Management
c) Jury Forest Management
d) Jharkhand Forest Management
Answer: a
Explanation: Joint Forest Management seeks to secure the involvement of local communities in management of forests on which people depend to meet various needs like for fodder, firewood, grass and so on.
11. What is called for the practice of regulating forest resources to meet the needs of society and industry while preserving the forest’s health?
a) Environmental protection
b) Sustainable Forest Management
c) Forest policy framework
d) Unsustainable Forest Management
Answer: b
Explanation: Sustainable forest management, also known as sustainable forestry is always looking to strike a balance between the demand for the forest’s natural resources and the vitality of the forest ecosystem.
12. Which one of the following is a branch of forestry?
a) Protection Forestry
b) Deforestation
c) Forest Management
d) Restricted Forestry
Answer: c
Explanation: Forest Management is a branch of forestry concerned with overall administrative legal, economic, social aspects and technical aspects. Management can be based on conservation, economics or a mixture of the two.
13. Which one of the following is not the best way to stop deforestation?
a) Planting trees
b) Not encouraging for recycling the used products
c) Go paperless
d) Eat vegetarian meals as often as possible
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the easy ways to combat deforestation is to plant a tree. Using less paper or go for paperless is also an effective way to stop deforestation. Eat vegetarian meals also helps to stop for forestation. Recycle and buying recycled products helps to stop deforestation.
14. Forest management varies in intensity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Forest management varies in intensity from an alone to a highly intensive regime with silvicultural interventions. Forest Management is generally increased in its intensity to achieve either economic criteria or ecological critera.
This set of Environment Management Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Wildlife Conservation in India”.
1. When did World Wild Fund for Nature-India established?
a) 1956
b) 1969
c) 1976
d) 1997
Answer: b
Explanation: WWF-India is the Indian part of the WWF. WWF-India is one of India’s leading conservation organizations. It was established as a charitable trust in 1969, it has massed almost five decades of experience in the field.
2. Which of the following organization launched an Education for Sustainable Development program?
a) Indian Forest Department
b) Indian Environment Conservation
c) WWF-India
d) Indian Pollution Board
Answer: c
Explanation: WWF-India launched an Education for Sustainable Development program in June 2013. This program including a trainer kit with materials in six languages. The program was targeted at teacher training and educational bodies responsible for curriculum.
3. Which of the following is the most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife?
a) Afforestation
b) Controlling of pollution level
c) Destruction of the natural habitats
d) Stop hunting animals
Answer: c
Explanation: Destruction of the natural habitats is the most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife. Deforestation of the natural habitats of animals affects the species of complete area.
4. How can we preserve viable material of endangered species?
a) By mutation
b) By cloning
c) By gene bank
d) By gene pool
Answer: c
Explanation: Viable materials of any endangered species can be preserved by a gene bank. Gene bank is an institute that maintains stocks of seed banks, tissue culture and frozen germplasm with certain precautionary measures.
5. Which of the following vertebrates have the highest number of endangered species?
a) Fishes
b) Birds
c) Reptiles
d) Mammals
Answer: d
Explanation: Mammals group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species. One in four of the world’s mammal species face extinction, according to a new conservation report card. Marine mammals face even steeper odds, with one in three species at risk of extinction.
6. Some of the most threatened species are found in Asia.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Asia is a region undergoing rapid human population and economic growth. Some of the most threatened species are found in Asia. Currently, 79 percent of Asia’s primate species face extinction.
7. Which year Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India?
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973
Answer: c
Explanation: The Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in 1972. It is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted for protection of plants and animals species. The Act established schedules of protected plant and animal species.
8. In which of the following states Nagarhole National Park located?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: a
Explanation: Nagarhole National Park is located in Kodagu District and Mysore district in Karnataka. It is established in 1988. This park was declared the 37th ‘Project Tiger’ Tiger reserves of India in the year 1999.
9. Which is the natural habitat of Indian lion?
a) Western Ghats
b) Sunderban delta
c) Gir forest
d) Himalayas
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural habitat of Indian lion is Gir forest, Gujarat. Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary established in 1965. According to 2015 census there were 523 lions situated in Gir Forest National Park.
10. What is called for a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity?
a) Biosphere
b) Bio-reserve
c) Biotechnology
d) Bio-ecology
Answer: b
Explanation: Bio-reserve is a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity. The central area preserves the flora and fauna. The surrounding zone is utilized for research and experiments regarding conserve bio-diversity.
11. Which of the following is a step taken by the government to protect the wildlife?
a) Control the population of animals in forest
b) Proper food facilities to the animals in forest
c) Deforestation to provide space for urbanization
d) Various Project to protect animals in forest
Answer: d
Explanation: The Government of India took various steps to the wildlife. The major among them is establishing of various projects in order to protect the wildlife. Some of the projects are Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many more.
12. Which type of wildlife is found in Ganga-Brahmaputra delta?
a) Lions
b) Yak
c) Royal Bengal
d) Sheep
Answer: c
Explanation: Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is a natural habitat for many animals. Prominent natural habitat in Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is Royal Bengal Tiger. Some of the other organisms are turtles, snakes, crocodiles and so on.
13. Which lake in Northeast India has the world’s only floating National Park?
a) Dal Lake
b) Loktak Lake
c) Lake Tsomgo
d) Shilloi Lake
Answer: b
Explanation: Loktak Lake in Manipur has the worlds only floating National Park. It is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India. Keibul Lamjao National Park located at the south western part of the Loktak Lake is the world’s only floating National Park.
14. The Indian government is undertaking many efforts for conservation of its wildlife.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Coast Guard Act, Wildlife Protection Act, Environmental Protection Act and Biological Diversity Act are some of the biggest undertaking of the Indian government towards the conservation of wildlife.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Role of NGOs”.
1. What is the full form of NGOs?
a) Non-Governmental Organizations
b) Non Governance Organizations
c) No Governance Organizations
d) Null Governmental Organizations
Answer: a
Explanation: NGOs stands for Non-Governmental Organization. Non-Governmental Organizations are organizations which are involved in carrying out a wide range of activities for the benefit of people and also for the environment.
2. In which of the following sector NGOs are playing an important role?
a) In governing the police force
b) In framing the policy related to laws
c) In framing the environmental policy
d) In deforestation
Answer: c
Explanation: NGOs are playing an important role in framing the environmental policy. This policy is clearly based on the welfare of the environment in order to protect it. NGOs insist government to frame the right policy.
3. When does an Environmental Policy achieve positive results?
a) When policy addressed to urban issues
b) When policy addressed to local issues
c) When policy addressed to international issues
d) When policy addressed to national issues
Answer: b
Explanation: Environmental policies will achieve positive results when they are addressed to local issues and solve the problems of local people. The policymakers should keep in mind the needs of the people while framing the policies and implementing the envi¬ronment-friendly projects.
4. In which of the following Greenpeace is fighting against?
a) Commercial fishing
b) Commercial farming
c) Commercial rattling
d) Commercial Whaling
Answer: d
Explanation: Commercial Whaling has resulted in the decline of the world’s whale population. In order to stop commercial whaling, Greenpeace is working. Greenpeace is fighting against commercial whaling. Through political work public outreach and by adopting non¬violent direct, action against the whalers at sea.
5. Why Greenpeace is opposing for genetic engineering?
a) Because it causes genetic pollution
b) Because it increase the health of organisms
c) It completely saves the forest
d) It contributes for better environment
Answer: a
Explanation: Genetic engineering enables the creation of plants, animals and micro-organisms through the manipulation of genes. The organisms, which are produced through genetic engineering when interbred with the natural organisms lead to new environments leads to genetic pollution.
6. There are many international environmental organizations protecting the environment.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There are many international environmental organizations which are providing environment protection. Some of them are Greenpeace, Worldwide Fund for Nature , Earth First, etc.
7. Why Greenpeace oppose the use of nuclear power?
a) Because nuclear power increase the environment rapidly
b) Because nuclear power plant abolishes the disasters
c) Because there is no disadvantages in nuclear power
d) Because it releases harmful radiations
Answer: d
Explanation: Greenpeace are against the use of nuclear power as its use has never been peaceful. Radiation released into the environment through the nuclear tests has led to the contamination of soil, air, rivers, and oceans, causing cancer and other diseases in people.
8. When did Greenpeace founded?
a) 1965
b) 1967
c) 1968
d) 1971
Answer: d
Explanation: Greenpeace was founded in 1971 to oppose US nuclear testing in Alaska. The organization has fought to protect the endangered species, stop the dumping of hazardous waste, and strengthen national and international laws that regulate environmental affairs.
9. Where is the WWF International located?
a) Poland
b) United States
c) Switzerland
d) England
Answer: c
Explanation: The WWF International is located at Gland in Switzerland. It is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961. The motto of WWF is “Building a future in which people live in harmony with nature”.
10. When did the Bombay Natural History Society founded?
a) 1857
b) 1868
c) 1883
d) 1897
Answer: c
Explanation: BNHS was founded in 1883, is recog¬nized as one of the foremost conservation research organizations in the world. It aims to collect data on the specimens on natural history throughout the Indian sub-continent.
11. What is the full form of CYWEN?
a) Club of Youth Working for Environment
b) Council of Youth Working for Environment
c) Club of Youth Working for Employment
d) Council of Youth Working for Employment
Answer: a
Explanation: Club of Youth Working for Environment is a youth group supported by the Centre for Environment Education, Ahmadabad, India. CYWEN has members between the ages of 15 and 23 years.
12. Which year Green Coalition founded?
a) 1998
b) 1999
c) 2000
d) 2001
Answer: c
Explanation: Green Coalition is an independent non-governmental advocacy organization founded in the year 2000. It is dedicated to improve public health standards, protecting the environment and promoting sustainable development & ethical business.
13. Which NGO has the mission as “Conserve the lands and waters on which all life depends”?
a) Greenpeace
b) Shuddhi
c) World Wildlife Fund
d) The Nature Conservancy
Answer: d
Explanation: The Natural Conservancy is a charitable environmental organization, headquartered in Virginia, United State. It focuses on conserving land and species around the world and has over 119 million acres of land worldwide.
14. Greenpeace campaigns to stop climate change.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to stop climate change, Greenpeace is campaigning on various fronts. The extensive use of oil, gas, fuel, and other energy resources leads to climatic changes, which results in global warming.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Public Policy and PILs”.
1. Which one of the following issues Environmental Policy is mainly concerned?
a) Political issues
b) Crime issues
c) Environmental issues
d) Personal issues
Answer: c
Explanation: Environmental Policy mainly concerns with environmental issues. These issues include air and water pollution, waste management, maintenance of biodiversity, waste management, the protection of wildlife and endangered species.
2. When did Indian Forest Act established?
a) 1911
b) 1914
c) 1925
d) 1927
Answer: d
Explanation: Indian Forest Act is established in 1927 under British rule. Under this Act developed procedures for setting up and protection of forests which are reserved, protected forests and village forests are the protected area.
3. In 1972 which Act formed in India to protect the wildlife of India?
a) Indian Forest Act
b) Wildlife Protection Act
c) Environmental Act
d) Natural Protection Act
Answer: b
Explanation: Wildlife Protection Act was established in 1972 in India to protect the wildlife. Apart from this, there are many things this Act looks like formalization of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservational reserves and community reserves.
4. Which is the only state in India where Wildlife protection Act, 1972 not applicable?
a) Karnataka
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
Answer: b
Explanation: Wildlife Protection Act provides for the protection of wildlife animals, birds and plants. This Act extends to whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act known as “The Jammu and Kashmir Wildlife Act”.
5. Under which domain 7th five year plan helped in the protection of environment?
a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
b) Indian Forest Act, 1927
c) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
d) National Forest Policy, 1988
Answer: a
Explanation: Under the domain of Environmental Protection Act, 1986 7th five year plan helped in the protection of environment. It is a legislation which signifies the central governments determination to take effective steps to protect the environment.
6. PIL helps the environmental NGOs and social activists to file number of cases for the effective enforcement of environmental laws.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: PIL helps in the protecting citizen’s right to healthy environment. The Supreme Court of India has not only ensured fundamental right of citizen to healthy environment but also has contributed immensely to the evolution of new principles in environmental jurisprudence.
7. What is the full form of PIL?
a) Private Interest Litigation
b) Public Interest Limited
c) Public Interest Litigation
d) Public Initiative Litigation
Answer: c
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court. It is a new legal horizon in which court of law can initiate and enforce action to serve and secure significant public interest.
8. When did Wildlife Conservation Strategy established?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Answer: c
Explanation: Wildlife Conservation Strategy established in 2002. According to this policy wildlife and forests shall be declared priority sector at the national level for which funds be earmarked and it also deals with no commercial mono-culture to replace natural forests.
9. To which government the Ministry of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency?
a) To the State Government
b) To the Central Government
c) To United Nations
d) To Union Territories
Answer: b
Explanation: The Ministry Of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency in the administrative structure of the Central Government. It works for the planning, promotion, co-ordination and overseeing the implementation of environmental and forestry programs.
10. When did the “Policy Statement for Abatement of Pollution” adopted?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Explanation: The Policy Statement for Abatement of Pollution adopted in 1992. The objective is to integrate environmental considerations into decision-making at all levels. To achieve these steps to be taken to prevent pollution at source, encourage, develop and apply the best available practicable technical solutions.
11. Who adopted the technique of public interest litigation for the cause of environmental protection in many cases in India?
a) Indian Parliament
b) Indian Army
c) Indian Civil Services
d) Indian judiciary
Answer: d
Explanation: The Indian judiciary adopted the technique of public interest litigation for the cause of environmental protection in many cases. The Supreme Court & High Courts shaded the inhibitions against refusing strangers to present the petitions on behalf of poor and ignorant individuals.
12. What is the result of PIL that is applied in Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs. State of U.P?
a) The Supreme Court prohibited the continuance of mining operations
b) The Supreme Court allows continuance of mining operations
c) The Supreme Court withheld the judgment to 2020
d) The Supreme Court asked the opinion of Central Government
Answer: a
Explanation: In the area of environmental protection, PIL has proved to be an effective tool. In Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs. State of Uttar Pradesh. The Supreme Court prohibited the continuance of mining operations terming it to be adversely affecting the environment.
13. The decision of the Supreme Court in the PIL of Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar is _______________
a) Approved
b) Denied
c) Pending
d) Formed jury panel
Answer: b
Explanation: The judiciary has used the tool of PIL quite effectively for the cause of environmental protection. But the judiciary has shown wisdom in denying false petitions seeking to advance private interests through PIL as evident from the decision of the Supreme Court in Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar.
14. PIL can be filed against individuals also.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: PIL can be filed against government only. A PIL may be filed against state government, central government, municipal authority not any private party. But, private person may be included in PIL as Respondent, after concerned of state authority.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Water Conservation, Rainwater Harvesting, Watershed Management”.
1. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?
a) Rain collection
b) Rainwater harvesting
c) Rain digging
d) Rain water pumping
Answer: b
Explanation: Rainwater harvesting is a technique of collection and storage of rainwater into natural reservoirs or tanks. Rainwater can be collected from rivers, roofs and in many places. The stored water can be used in needy situation.
2. What is the name of the process to clean water using filters?
a) Sublimation
b) Oxidation
c) Rainwater harvesting
d) Purification
Answer: d
Explanation: Purification of water is the process of removing undesirable chemicals, biological contaminants and gases from water. Water filter, the device uses small scale quality improvement clean the water for domestic purposes.
3. What is called for the method of removing dust and other particles from water using filters?
a) Filtration
b) Sublimation
c) Rainwater harvesting
d) Evaporation
Answer: a
Explanation: Filtration is a process that removes particles from suspension in water. Removal of particles takes place by a number of mechanisms that include straining, flocculation, surface capture and more types.
4. Which one of the following is the best way to conserve water?
a) Taking shower with less water
b) Taking shower with more water
c) Not taking shower
d) Using other liquids instead of water for shower
Answer: a
Explanation: Using less water in shower save water and it also saves time for shower. Various methods like installation of a low-flow showerhead, turning off the tap when not using, spending less time in shower can conserve water efficiently.
5. What is the gallon to use in new toilets according to Federal plumbing standards?
a) 1.6
b) 2.5
c) 3.9
d) 4.3
Answer: a
Explanation: Old toilets can use 3.5, 5, or even up to 7 gallons of water with every flush. Federal plumbing standards now specify that new toilets can only use up to 1.6 gallons per flush and high efficiency toilets that use up to 1.28 gallons.
6. We only use water for drinking.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: We don’t just use water for drinking. We use water for washing and we use water to produce everything from food to clothing. Fresh water supplies are being used faster than ever for crop production.
7. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two ways of harvesting rainwater, 1. Surface runoff harvesting: In urban area rainwater flows away as surface runoff, this runoff can be used for recharging aquifers. 2. Roof top rainwater harvesting: It is a system of catching rainwater where it falls.
8. How can we increase the water efficient irrigation system?
a) By pouring unnecessary water to the land
b) By not supplying adequate water
c) By applying drip irrigation method
d) By using more manures
Answer: c
Explanation: Drip irrigation is a method of controlled irrigation in which water is slowly delivered to the root system of multiple plants. Drip irrigation increases the water efficient irrigation system and hence it is very helpful in water conservation.
9. What are the two main types of drip irrigation?
a) Surface and Subsurface drip irrigation
b) Under and Subsurface drip irrigation
c) Top and Surface drip irrigation
d) Top and Under drip irrigation
Answer: a
Explanation: Surface drip irrigation and subsurface drip irrigation are the two main types of drip irrigation. In surface drip irrigation the water is delivered to the surface of the soil directly above the root system of the plants. In subsurface drip irrigation the water is applied directly to the root system.
10. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?
a) In order to play with the water
b) In order to use during scarcity of water
c) In order to pour the rain water directly to the sewage
d) In order to time pass
Answer: b
Explanation: Rainwater harvesting helps to store the rain water and it can be used during the scarcity of water. We can use as per convince either directly or for recharging groundwater as the rain falling on the surface to flow away fast.
11. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?
a) Flood mitigation
b) Provide a lot of water to play
c) Create good aesthetic view
d) Decrease the ground water level
Answer: a
Explanation: Rainwater harvesting helps for flood mitigation. Appropriate designed recharges in open public spaces will help to keep the roads from flooding. When water is not allowed to leave the premises there is less chance for choking up of the roads.
12. Which one of the following is an effective way of conserving water?
a) Increase food waste
b) Eat less meat
c) Always turn on the taps
d) Boil the water when there is no need
Answer: b
Explanation: Eat less meat is one of the effective ways of conserving water. Rearing animals for meat and dairy is incredibly water intensive. By cutting down on the amount of meat consume we can save water drastically.
13. What is called for an area surrounding a body of water in which that body of water is subject to?
a) Rainwater harvesting
b) Watershed
c) Water pumping
d) Water cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: Watersheds include groundwater flow as well slowly flows through deep soil. For example, if a river is flowing through a city, its watershed would be the surrounding land that is sloped towards the river including forests.
14. Rainwater harvesting increases the groundwater levels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Rainwater harvesting increases the ground water level, it marked the improvement of both the quantity as well as the quality of the groundwater in areas which have implemented rainwater harvesting.
This set of Energy and Environment Management online test focuses on “Environmental Ethics : Issues and Possible Solutions”.
1. Environmental ethics belongs to which part?
a) Environmental science
b) Environmental chemistry
c) Environmental philosophy
d) Environmental studies
Answer: c
Explanation: Environmental ethics is the part of environmental philosophy. It considers extending the traditional boundaries of ethics from solely including humans to including environment which are of many organisms.
2. On what Marshall’s category of conservation ethics valid?
a) Usefulness to all organisms
b) Usefulness to humans
c) Usefulness to the ecosystem
d) Non usefulness to humans
Answer: b
Explanation: Marshal’s category of conservation ethics is an extension of use value into the biological world. It focuses only on the worth of the environment in terms of its usefulness or utility to humans only in this situation it is valid.
3. According to anthropocentrism who are more important?
a) Fishes
b) Lizards
c) Humans
d) Lions
Answer: c
Explanation: Anthropocentrism is the position that humans are the most important or critical element in any situation. According to anthropocentrism human race must always be its own primary concern apart from the rest.
4. Who distinguished between two types of anthropocentrism?
a) Aristotle
b) Michael Smith
c) Chris Lynn
d) Peter Vardy
Answer: d
Explanation: Peter Vardy distinguished between two types of anthropocentrism they are strong and weak anthropocentrism. Strong anthropocentrism argues that humans are at the center of reality. Weak anthropocentrism argues that reality can be only interpreted from a human point of view.
5. Who coined the term “Environmental Pragmatism”?
a) Smith harry
b) Henry willsion
c) David Walker
d) Bryan Norton
Answer: d
Explanation: Bryan Norton developed one of the essential actors of environmental ethics by launching environmental pragmatism. It refuses to take a stance in disputes between defenders of anthropocentrism and non-anthropocentrism ethics.
6. Environmental ethics exerts influence on a large range of disciplines.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Environmental ethics exerts influence on a large range of disciplines including environmental law, environmental sociology, ecotheology, ecology, ecological economics and environmental geography.
7. Who is the dominant species in the planet according to human centered environmental worldviews?
a) Blue whale
b) Elephant
c) Giraffe
d) Human
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the human centered environmental worldviews, on the planet most important and dominant species are human. Humans can and should manage the planet mostly for own benefit. This creating imbalance in the environment.
8. Which one of the following is not an ethical guideline?
a) Developing respect for all life
b) Understanding how earth works
c) Considering humans as the predominant species
d) Seeking of environmental wisdom
Answer: c
Explanation: Apart from the humans as the predominant species all other options are important ethical guidelines known as Earth Ethics or Environmental Ethics. Considering humans as predominant leads to the long-term harmful for environmental and social consequences.
9. What is the main reason environmental destruction?
a) Due to consumption of the poor
b) Due to consumption of the rich
c) Due to no consumption
d) Due to consumption in certain interval of times
Answer: b
Explanation: Environmental destruction is largely caused by the consumption of the rich. The worst sufferers of environmental destruction are the poor, even among the poor the worst sufferers are the backward cultures and women.
10. What is the full form of GNP?
a) Gross Nation Product
b) Gross Nation Purchase
c) Gross Nation Premises
d) Grand Nation Product
Answer: a
Explanation: The Gross Nation Product is the total amount of product produced in the entire nation. The GNP will be enhanced if we can stop and reverse the growing alienation between people and the resources.
11. When was first earth day celebrated?
a) December 23, 1956
b) May 21, 1965
c) April 22, 1970
d) July 24, 1976
Answer: c
Explanation: Understanding the serious implications of depletion of the natural resources, earth day was started observing from April 22, 1970 onwards. The purpose is to make people and government agencies aware of the importance of caring and preserving the environment.
12. Which one of the following is the major environmental issue?
a) Use of resources
b) Use of economy
c) Education
d) Employment
Answer: a
Explanation: Use of resources is one of the important environmental issues. Developed countries use a major part of natural resources. The developing county like India also overuses its natural resources for its large population.
13. The common property of rural communities has increasingly been used to supply the needs of the ______________
a) Forests
b) Urban
c) Deserts
d) Water bodies
Answer: b
Explanation: An urban-rural equity issue is of the major environmental ethics facing. The rural sector supplies food and part of the energy needs to most towns and cities in India. The common lands of the rural sector are being depleted of their resources.
14. Environmental ethics tells all the life forms on Earth have the right to live.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The environmental ethics brings out the fact that all the life forms on Earth have the right to live. By destroying nature we are denying the life forms. The food web clearly indicates that humans, plants and animals are closely linked with each other and everyone have the right to live.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Kyoto Protocol and Montreal Protocol”.
1. Based on what the Kyoto Protocol set emission reduction targets for the group of greenhouse gases?
a) Hydrogen equivalents
b) Carbon dioxide equivalents
c) Oxygen equivalents
d) Nitrogen equivalents
Answer: b
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol set emission reduction targets for a group of greenhouse gases including hydrofluorocarbons based on their carbon dioxide equivalents. Carbon dioxide is one of the highly emitted gases.
2. Under how many agreements fluorochemicals are regulated?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluorochemicals are regulated under two international agreements. Those agreements are the Montreal Protocol and Kyoto Protocol. Both these agreements work towards the better climatic conditions of the planet.
3. With minor exception, which of the following have been phased out completely globally?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Nitrogen dioxide
Answer: c
Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbons is one of the ozone depleting substances. Release of chlorofluorocarbons leads to the damage of the ozone layer. With a very minor exception, CFCs have been phased out globally.
4. For what production and consumption phase out schedules the Montreal Protocol has established?
a) Greenhouse emitting gases
b) Global warming emitting gases
c) Ozone layer depleting substances
d) Water level increasing substances
Answer: c
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol has established production and consumption phase out schedules for chlorofluorocarbons, hydro chlorofluorocarbons and other ozone layer depleting substances and protecting ozone.
5. How can be determined carbon dioxide equivalents?
a) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its global warming potential
b) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its pressure
c) By multiplying the quantity of the water by its global warming potential
d) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its global cooling potential
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the carbon dioxide equivalents the Kyoto Protocol set emission reduction targets. The carbon dioxide equivalent of a gas is determined by multiplying the quantity of the gas by its global warming potential.
6. The Montreal Protocol is less known for its role in climate protection.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol is well known for protecting stratospheric ozone. But it is less known for its role in climate protection. The reason for this is, the Kyoto Protocol aims to the reduction of green house gas while the Montreal protocol works on the ozone layer depleting gases.
7. When did the Kyoto Protocol entered into force?
a) 1997
b) 2000
c) 2005
d) 2009
Answer: c
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol Is an international treaty that commits to reducing greenhouse gas emission. It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, On December 11, 1997. It later on February 16, 2005 it entered into forces.
8. When is the first commitment period for the Kyoto Protocol expired?
a) 2007
b) 2010
c) 2012
d) 2015
Answer: c
Explanation: The first commitment period for the Kyoto Protocol expired on 31 December 2012 which came into effective force from 16 February 2005. Kyoto Protocol Extension was drafted on December 8, 2012. This extension is expired in 2020.
9. When did the Montreal Protocol entered into force?
a) 1984
b) 1986
c) 1989
d) 1994
Answer: c
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty on substances that depleting the ozone layer and it is designed to protect the ozone layer. The Montreal Protocol was agreed on 16 September 187 and entered into force on 1 January 1989.
10. What are the substances present in the ozone layer depleting substances controlled by the Montreal Protocol?
a) Either chlorine or bromine
b) Either carbon or nitrogen
c) Either chlorine or carbon
d) Either carbon or bromine
Answer: d
Explanation: All the ozone layer depleting substances controlled by the Montreal Protocol contain either chlorine or bromine. Some ozone depleting substances are not yet controlled by the Montreal Protocol for example nitrous oxide.
11. Why hydrofluorocarbons are no harm to the ozone layer?
a) Because they contain chlorine
b) Because they do not contain chlorine
c) Because they contain carbon
d) Because they contain nitrogen
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrofluorocarbons are not harm to the ozone layer because unlike CFCs they do not contain chlorine in it. But they are greenhouse gases with a high global warming potential. Hence through Montreal Protocol fast phase down of high global warming potential HFCs are taking into action.
12. Which Amendment was agreed to phase down HFCs under the Montreal Protocol?
a) Paris Amendment
b) New York Amendment
c) Delhi Amendment
d) Kigali Amendment
Answer: d
Explanation: The parties to the Montreal Protocol adopted the Kigali Amendment in October 2016 in Kigali. This Amendment agreed the parties to phase down HFCs production and consumption under the Montreal Protocol.
13. Which one of the following is the objective of Kyoto Protocol?
a) Stabilization and reconstruction of greenhouse gases
b) Protecting the ozone layer from depletion
c) Reducing the CFCs and HFCs usage
d) Increasing the greenhouse gases
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the main objectives of the Kyoto Protocol is the stabilization and reconstruction of greenhouse gas concentration in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent damages causing to the climate.
14. The Montreal Protocol is the successful climate agreement.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol has resulted in 99$ phase-out of CFCs and other harmful ozone depleting substances. Kigali Amendment contributes to avoiding 0.5 degree Celsius of globally warming through reducing HFCs that are powerful global warming potentials.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Acid Rain”.
1. Which one of the following cause acid rain?
a) Water pollution
b) Soil pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Noise Pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: Acid rain is mainly caused due to a result of air pollution. When any type of fuel is burnt, lots of different chemicals are produced. Some of the gases react with tiny droplets of water. This rain from clouds forms acid rain.
2. What are two acids formed when gases react with the tiny droplets of water in clouds?
a) Sulphuric acids and nitric acid
b) Hydrochloric acid and nitric acid
c) Sulfurous acid and acetylsalicylic acid
d) Sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid
Answer: a
Explanation: The gases of nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide react with the tiny droplets of water in clouds to form sulphuric and nitric acid. The rain from these clouds falls as very weak acid known as ‘Acid rain’.
3. What is the nature of acid rain?
a) Withstanding
b) Protecting
c) Corrosive
d) Balancing
Answer: c
Explanation: The nature of acid rain is corrosive. This corrosive nature of acid rain produces many forms of environmental damages. It affects rivers, vegetation, soil and organisms. Acid rain is known to cause widespread environmental damage.
4. Which of the following way acid rain affects the plants?
a) By nourishing the nutrients from the soil
b) By increasing the nutrients from the soil
c) By removing nutrients from the soil
d) By balancing the nutrients in the soil
Answer: c
Explanation: Acid rain indirectly affects plants by removing nutrients from the soil during which they grow. Acid rain dissolves and washes away all the vitamins in the soil which are very much essential for plants.
5. What is the result of acid rain when it falls into water bodies?
a) The water becomes acidic
b) The water becomes pure
c) The water increase its nutrients value
d) The water increase its level
Answer: a
Explanation: When acid rain that falls or flows as water to reach rivers, lakes, wetlands and other water bodies causes the water in them to become acidic. This affects plant and animal life in aquatic ecosystems.
6. Acid rain does not cause any environmental damages.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Acid rain cause many environmental damages. It affects the plants by removing nutrients from the soil. It affects plants and animals life in ecosystem. It affects the food chain. It damages buildings, vehicles and other systems made from stone or steel.
7. Which one of the way can prevent acid rain?
a) Increase the emission of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
b) Decrease the emission of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
c) Increase in the emission of hydrochloride and phosphate
d) Decrease in the emission of hydrochloride and phosphate
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the ways to stop the formation of acid rain is to decrease the emission of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides into the surroundings. This may be achieved by using much less energy from fossil fuels in power plants and in industries.
8. The Taj Mahal in India is affected by____________________
a) Fog
b) Acid rain
c) Water pollution
d) Spoil Pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Acid rain and dry acid deposition damage buildings. The acid corrodes the materials causing extensive damage and ruins historic buildings. For instances the Tai Mahal in India have been affected by acid rain.
9. Which of the following is the best way to reduce acid rain in soil?
a) By adding sulphur to the soil
b) By adding nitrogen to the soil
c) By adding oxygen to the soil
d) By adding limestone to the soil
Answer: d
Explanation: When acid rain affects the soil it’s difficult to prevent soil from acid rain but powered limestone can be added to the soil by a process which is known as liming to neutralize the acidity of the soil.
10. How can we control acid rain which is causing due to the exhaust fumes on the atmosphere by cars?
a) By burning more fuels
b) By using old engine vehicles
c) By using ignition
d) By using catalytic converters
Answer: d
Explanation: In catalytic converters, the gases are passed over metal coated beds that convert harmful chemicals into less harmful ones. These are used in cars to reduce the effects of exhaust fumres on the atmosphere.
11. Which is the most acidic in pH scale?
a) 0
b) 7
c) 10
d) 14
Answer: a
Explanation: Acidity is measured using a scale called the pH scale. This scale goes from 0 to 14. 0 is the most acidic and 14 is the most alkaline. Acid rain is much weaker than the string acids, it’s never acidic enough to burn the skin.
12. Who was the first to use the phrase “Acid Rain”?
a) Robert Angus Smith
b) Ernest Flower
c) Elmer Joseph Clark
d) Christ Ralph
Answer: a
Explanation: The phrase acid rain was first used in 1852 by Robert Angus Smith, who was a Scottish chemist. In his investigation of rainwater chemistry near industrial cities in England and Scotland he termed the phrase acid rain for the very first time.
13. When was the “Clean Air Act” in United States came into force?
a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1980
Answer: c
Explanation: In the United States, reduction in acid deposition stem for the Clean Air Act of 1970 and its Amendments in 1990. This Amendments begun by the regulating of coal fired power plant emission. This development significantly reduced the Sulphuric dioxide in United States.
14. Natural sources also cause acid rain.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The major natural causing agent for acid rain is volcanic emission. Volcanoes emit acid producing gases to create higher than normal amounts of acid rain or any other form of precipitation such as fog and snow.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Ozone Layer Depletion”.
1. Which of the following action takes place in the formation of ozone?
a) Action of daylight on oxygen
b) Action of daylight on nitrogen
c) Action of daylight on hydrogen
d) Action of daylight on phosphorous
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone is made by the action of daylight on oxygen. It forms a layer 20 to 50 km over the surface of the earth. This action of formation of ozone over the surface of the earth takes place naturally within the atmosphere.
2. How many oxygen particles are there in every atom of ozone?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: Ozone is a type of oxygen that has three particles in every atom. The formation of ozone is extremely slow. Ozone gas is extremely toxic with a powerful odor. This toxic gas is harmful to environment.
3. Why ozone within the upper environment is important?
a) Because it provides rain to the earth
b) It protects the earth from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiations
c) It provides good aesthetic view to the atmosphere
d) It protects the earth from floods
Answer: b
Explanation: Ozone within the upper environment is important to all existence because it protects the earth from the harmful ultraviolent radiations. The ozone layer within upper atmosphere absorbs the sun’s ultraviolent radiations and it prevents it to reach the earth surface.
4. Which of the following is threat to the ozonosphere?
a) Nitrogen dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) CFCs
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c
Explanation: Ozone layer within the atmosphere protects life on earth from harmful ultraviolent radiation from the sun. Chlorofluorocarbons that were used as refrigerants and aerosol spray propellants expose a threat to the ozonosphere.
5. Which one of the following is a result of ozone layer depletion?
a) Increase in the oxygen level
b) Increase in the nitrogen level
c) Increase in the phosphorous level
d) Increases in the carbon dioxide level
Answer: d
Explanation: The destruction of the ozone layer causes harm to positive vegetation and to plankton and accordingly affecting nature’s food chains and food webs. This in turn causes an increase in carbon dioxide due to the decrease in vegetation.
6. Ozone at a ground level considered as a pollutant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone is taken into consideration as a pollutant at ground level and constitutes a health risk. The health risks like inflicting respiratory ailments like allergies and bronchitis and other health related issues.
7. In which layer of atmosphere ozone is very vital for all vegetation?
a) Upper atmosphere
b) Below atmosphere
c) Ground level
d) Below ground level
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone in the upper atmosphere is vital to all forms of life as it protects the earth from harmful UV radiations. Ozone at ground level is considered a pollutant at ground level and causes harm to vegetation.
8. Which atom released when CFCs molecules are broken from UV radiations?
a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Nitrogen
d) Arsenic
Answer: b
Explanation: The CFC molecules are virtually indestructible until they reach the level of stratosphere. In stratosphere UV radiations breaks them down to release chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms react with ozone molecules to break them down into oxygen molecules.
9. What is the full form of CFCs?
a) Chlorofluorocarbons
b) Chlorine fluorocarbons
c) Chromate fluorocarbons
d) Chlorofluridcarbons
Answer: a
Explanation: CFCs stands for chlorofluorocarbons. In the 1970s, scientists discovered chlorofluorocarbons, which are used as refrigerants and aerosol spray propellants, pose a threat to the ozone layer.
10. Which is the first place where scientist found the thinning of ozone layer?
a) Atmosphere above Australia
b) Atmosphere above Antarctica
c) Atmosphere above India
d) Atmosphere above France
Answer: b
Explanation: Antarctica was the first place where scientist comes to known about the thinning of ozone layer. In the early 1980s, scientists have detected a thinning of the ozone layer in the atmosphere above Antarctica.
11. Which treaty was signed in 187 for the protection of ozone layer?
a) The Montreal Protocol
b) The Kyoto Protocol
c) Ozone Summit
d) Wildlife Conservation Act
Answer: a
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol which was signed in 1987 is a treaty for the protection of the ozone layer, the use of CFCs was to be banned by the year 2000, after which the ozone layer is expected to slowly recover over a period of about 50 years.
12. Which one of the following cause ozone layer depletion?
a) Oxygen
b) Mercury
c) Sodium silicate
d) Methyl chloroform
Answer: d
Explanation: Methyl chloroform belongs to ‘Ozone Depleting Substances’. There are other chemical substances apart from the chlorofluorocarbons that are generally grouped as ozone depleting substances. Methyl chloroform used on making industrial solvents.
13. Which compound which used in fire extinguishers cause ozone layer depletion?
a) Sodium aluminates
b) Phosphates
c) Halons
d) Sulfurous silicate
Answer: c
Explanation: Halons are compounds formed by Br, F and C. Because of its ability to put out fires, they are used in fire extinguishers, although their manufacture and use is prohibited in many countries because of their ozone depleting action.
14. The reduced in the use of CFCs completely prevents the ozone layer depletion.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The reduced in the use of CFCs didn’t completely prevent the ozone layer depletion. Although the use of CFCs has been reduced and banned in most countries, other chemicals like bromine, nitrous oxides and halocarbons continue to attack the ozone layer.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Greenhouse Effects”.
1. When do greenhouse gases cause global warming?
a) When their concentration is enhanced
b) When their concentration is decreased
c) When there are no greenhouse gases
d) When greenhouse gas released in balance way
Answer: a
Explanation: Greenhouse gases cause global warming which in the long run threatens the existence of life on Earth. This is the case only when their concentration is enhanced, but these gases are also essential to survive on this planet.
2. How much percent of energy is absorbs from the Sun to Earth?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
Answer: b
Explanation: When the Earth receives energy from the Sun, the surface of the Earth only absorbs 50% of it. The radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is radiated again in all direction some radiated towards space and radiated back to the surface of the Earth.
3. What is called for the phenomenon when the radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is re-radiated towards the surface of the Earth?
a) Smog
b) Newton effect
c) Darwin effect
d) Greenhouse effect
Answer: d
Explanation: Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon that helps in keeping the temperature at the surface warm and balanced, which is suitable for all organisms. Because of greenhouse gas, the radiations are re-radiated.
4. Which of the following result obtain due to cutting down of trees?
a) Providing more fresh oxygen
b) Providing more pure water
c) Cause greenhouse effect
d) Cause increase in the rain
Answer: c
Explanation: Forest which plays an important role in maintaining the balance of nature by absorbing the excess carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere. Cutting down of trees increase in carbon dioxide level, eventually, cause greenhouse effect.
5. Which is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water vapor
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
Answer: b
Explanation: Water vapor is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas. It constituting around 35-70% of all the gases contributing to greenhouse effect. Increase in temperature results in a relatively high presence of water vapor in the atmosphere.
6. Population growth indirectly contributes for greenhouse effect.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Population growth is an indirect contributor and one of the major causes of the greenhouse effect. Due to increase in population there is an increase in deforestation and increasing in industrial processes. This results in the increase of greenhouse gas which thereby causes greenhouse effect.
7. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
a) Water vapor
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Ethane
Answer: d
Explanation: Ethane is not a greenhouse gas among the above options. Water vapor is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas with consti9tute around 35-70%, carbon dioxide constitutes around 9-26% and methane constitute around 4-9%.
8. When did greenhouse effect discovered?
a) 1814
b) 1824
c) 1854
d) 1884
Answer: c
Explanation: The greenhouse effect was first discovered by Joseph Fourier in 1924. The greenhouse effect is a natural process that is thousands of years old. Apart from Joseph Fourier it is experimentally verified by John Tyndall in 1861 and quantified in the year 1894 BY Svante Arrhenius.
9. Why the temperature inside the car is much warmer than the outside temperature when the car that has been left parked in the sun for a couple of hours?
a) Due to air pollution
b) Due to smog
c) Due to sudden climate change
d) Due to greenhouse effect
Answer: d
Explanation: When we opened we open the door of a car that has been left parked in the sun for a couple of hours, we notice that the temperature inside the car is much warmer than outside. This is due to greenhouse effect.
10. Taking the example of a car parked in the sun for a few hours, which of the following action takes place?
a) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into heat
b) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into electricity
c) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is completely absorbed by the car
d) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into wind energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The windows of the car allow the sunlight to enter into the car. This light is then partially converted into heat. However, these same windows do not allow the heat inside the car to pass through as easily as light.
11. For greenhouse effect greenhouse gases interacts with which one of the following options?
a) Wind’s energy
b) Sun’s energy
c) Atmosphere pressure
d) Pollution in the atmosphere
Answer: b
Explanation: The greenhouse effect is caused due to the interaction of the sun’s energy with greenhouse gases such as methane, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide and fluorinated gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. The greenhouse effect increases the temperature of the Earth.
12. Which is the main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect?
a) Water vapor
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
Answer: a
Explanation: The main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect is water vapor. Water vapor is a highly active component of the climate system that responds rapidly to changes in conditions. Thus the impact of the greenhouse effect is primarily circulated through water vapor and it acts as a fast feedback.
13. Greenhouse is made up of_______________
a) Bricks
b) Glass
c) Steel
d) Copper
Answer: b
Explanation: A greenhouse is a house that is made up of glass. It has many doors and roof which are made up of glass. A greenhouse remains warm during the winter. It is used by the people in colder regions where it is difficult to grow plants under extreme cold temperature.
14. Greenhouse effect occurs to bodies other than Earth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The greenhouse effect on Titan has an anti-greenhouse effect. The greenhouse effect on Venus is large because its dense atmosphere consists mainly of carbon dioxide. Because of the evaporation of nitrogen, Pluto is colder than expected.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Global Warming “.
1. Which one of the following cause global warming?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: About 75% of the solar energy reaching the earth is absorbed by the earth’s surface the rest of the heat radiate back to the atmosphere. Some of the heat is trapped by greenhouse gases as carbon dioxide which is released by various human activities.
2. How many percent of carbon dioxide increased in the atmosphere since pre-industrial times?
a) About 10%
b) About 20%
c) About 30%
d) About 40%
Answer: c
Explanation: The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased about 30% since pre-industrial times. It causing more heat to trapped in the lower atmosphere. Human activities, industrialization and population growth are the main reasons.
3. What is the full form of UNFCC with respect to global warming convention?
a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
b) United Nations Federation Convention on Climate Change
c) United Nations Framework Center on Climate Change
d) United Nations Federation Center on Climate Change
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to control the continuous increase in the carbon dioxide level many countries have signed a convention to reduce greenhouse gas under the United Nationals Framework Convention on Climate Change .
4. Who measures the global warming rate?
a) Astrologers
b) Physicist
c) Philosopher
d) Climatologist
Answer: d
Explanation: Global warming is usually calculated by climatologist. Global warming is accelerating faster than that calculated by climatologists. It was predicted in 1995 that in 21st century there would be raise in temperature by 3.5 to 10 degree Celsius.
5. Which one of the following result takes place due to global warming?
a) Maintaining steady temperature
b) Changes in the rainfall
c) Pleasant environment
d) Causing less pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Global warming leads to changes in temperature and also changes the amount of rainfall and causes various problems. These fluctuations in rainfall cause various problems and leading to either floods or droughts.
6. Human activities cause global warming.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Human activities during the last few decades of industrialization and population growth have seriously polluted the atmosphere to the extent that it has begun to seriously affect the vegetation and organisms in the environment.
7. Which one of the following cause global warming?
a) Radiative forcing
b) Earth gravitation force
c) Oxygen
d) Centripetal force
Answer: a
Explanation: Radiative forcing is a measure of the influence of a given climatic factor that has an amount of downward directed radiant energy. Global warming is cause through a change in the fraction of the radiation reaching the surface of the earth.
8. How human activity has influenced global warming?
a) By planting more trees
b) By causing changing in gravitational force
c) By changing the radiative balance governing the Earth
d) By protecting environment
Answer: c
Explanation: Human activity has influenced global surface temperature by changing the radiative balance governing the Earth on various timescales. Introduction of greenhouse gases to environment results in greater damage to the environment.
9. Which one of the following is the anthropogenic radiative forcing of climate?
a) Aerosols
b) Cement
c) Paper
d) Glass
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerosols represents an important anthropogenic radiative forcing of climate. Collectively, aerosols block reflect and absorb a portion of income solar radiation. This also creates negative radiative forcing.
10. Which one of the following land use causes global warming?
a) Increase in the fertility of soil
b) Surface reflectance
c) Forestation
d) Adopting organic farming
Answer: b
Explanation: The most direct way in which changes in land use can influence global warming is surface reflectance or Earth albedo. For example for surface reflectance is replacement of forest by setting cropland.
11. Changes in the composition of the atmosphere is an example of____________________
a) Internal forcing
b) External forcing
c) Mid forcing
d) Gravitational forcing
Answer: b
Explanation: The climate system generate random changes in global temperature for years to decades at a time, but long terms changes emanate only from external forcing. Increased in the concentration of greenhouse gases is an example of external forcing including changes in the composition of the atmosphere.
12. What is the main reason for melting of ice sheets?
a) Increase in the oxygen content
b) Global warming
c) Decrease in carbon dioxide content
d) Noise pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Global warming is affecting various places around the world. It is a accelerated the melting of ice sheets, permafrost and glaciers which there by causing rise in the average sea levels to greater extent continuously.
13. Which one of the following is the effect of global warming?
a) Maintaining sea level
b) Proper rainfall
c) Desertification
d) Afforestation
Answer: c
Explanation: Desertification is one of the effects of global warming. Causing water shortages and an intense amount of distress in the dry regions which are degraded into forest. This process is called desertification.
14. Soot only warm Earth’s climate system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Soot either cool or warm Earth’s climate system, depending on whether it is airborne or deposited. Atmospheric soot which directly absorbs solar radiations, which heats the atmosphere and cools the surface.
This set of Tough Environment Management Questions and Answers focuses on “Climate Change”.
1. Which one of the following is an important heat trapping gas?
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is an important heat trapping gas. It is released through human activities such as deforestation and burning fossil fuels, as well as natural processes such as volcanic eruptions and respiration.
2. How many cubic kilometers of land ice decrease in Antarctica since 2002?
a) 100
b) 400
c) 500
d) 1000
Answer: a
Explanation: Decrease in land ice is one of the effects of climate change. The continent Antarctica has been losing more than 100 cubic kilometers of ice per year since the year 2002. These decreases in land ice result in the increase of sea level.
3. Which one of the following is the reason for a sea level rise?
a) Depression of sea water
b) Expansion of sea water
c) Due to heavy rainfall
d) Due to low rainfall
Answer: b
Explanation: Sea level rise is caused by the expansion of sea water. Sea water as it warms up due to sunlight it response to climate change and the widespread melting of land ice. Sea level rise consumes the coastal lands and islands.
4. What is the full form of IPCC?
a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) International Panel on Climate Change
c) Intergovernmental Protocols on Climate Change
d) International Panel on Climate Conservation
Answer: a
Explanation: IPCC stands for Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. It reviewed the results of several experiments in order to estimate changes in climate in the course of this century. These studies shown that, the mean average temperature will rise by 1.4 to 5.8 degree Celsius.
5. What is the estimation range of the global mean sea level rise by the year 2100?
a) 0-10 cm
b) 4-45 cm
c) 9-88 cm
d) 14-123 cm
Answer: c
Explanation: The global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9-88 cm by the year 2100. This cause various problems to humans as more than half of the world’s population now lives within 60 km of the sea.
6. Human society can sustain any kind of climate change.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Human societies will be seriously affected by extremes in climate. Some of the climatic extremes which lead to droughts and floods will cause great damage to human society. This is also a fundamental concern for human health.
7. According to the World Health Organization estimation in 2001, which one of the following is the most vulnerable region for a rise in sea level?
a) Srilanka
b) Andaman and Nicobar
c) Ganges–Brahmaputra delta
d) Kutch
Answer: c
Explanation: According to World Health Organization, Ganges-Brahmaputra delta in Bangladesh is the most vulnerable region for rise in sea level among the above given options. They cause various problems for vegetations and as well as for organisms.
8. Which one of the following is a result of climate change?
a) Adequate rainfall
b) Pure air
c) Deficiency of freshwater
d) Less soil pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: Freshwater supplies may be seriously affected due to climate change. Reducing the availability of clean water for drinking leads to the death of humans and as well as animals. It leads to drought condition.
9. How food production reduced due to climate change?
a) Due to application of organic manures
b) Due to modern technologies
c) Due to increase in pests
d) Due to reduced in pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: Food production will be seriously reduced in vulnerable regions directly and also indirectly through an increase in pests and plant or animal diseases. This leads to reduce in the yield of crops and the quality of the crops also reduced.
10. How climate change leads to conflicts in vulnerable regions?
a) By shortage of human resources
b) By shortage of food and water
c) By shortage of land
d) By shortage of chemical manures
Answer: b
Explanation: Food and water shortages may lead to conflicts in vulnerable regions. Due to shortage of food and water both animals and humans suffer from starvation and malnutrition with long term health consequences.
11. What happens when seasonal transmission of vector species due to climate change?
a) Increase the spread of diseases
b) Decreased the spread of diseases
c) Vector species itself die
d) Vector species do not spread disease
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to change in climate vector species like mosquitoes, will increase the spread of diseases, such as malaria, dengue etc to new areas which lack good public health infrastructure and cause problems.
12. Which one of the following can achieve Global Climate Change?
a) World War-3
b) Making unwanted policies
c) Drinking less water than required
d) The training of researchers and health professionals
Answer: d
Explanation: The training of researchers and health professionals is essential towards the world becoming more responsible for the expected outcome of Global Climate Change. Thus we can protect the environment.
13. In which year the Pacific Ocean led to the most serious death in coral ever known?
a) 1993
b) 1995
c) 1997
d) 2000
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1997, the severity of periodic warming in the Pacific Ocean led to the most serious death in coral ever known. It is estimated that about 10% of the earth’s coral reefs were dead and another 30% were seriously affected.
14. World Health Organization warned that climate change may have a serious affect on human health.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: World Health Organization set up a task group which warned that climate change may have a serious affect on human health. Climate change will increase existing health problems and may also bring new heath problems.
This set of Environment Management online quiz focuses on “Pollution Control Boards and Control Pollution Acts in India”.
1. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?
a) 1970
b) 1972
c) 1974
d) 1976
Answer: c
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board of India was established in 1974 under the Water Act. It is a statutory organization which comes under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Governor of the State
d) President of India
Answer: a
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board is lead by its chairman, this chairman is appointed by the Central Government. The current acting chairman is Shri S. P. Singh Parihar. This entire board comes under Central Government.
3. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control?
a) Water Pollution Control Board
b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Central Pollution Control Board
d) Air pollution Control Board
Answer: c
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control. It is a technical wing of Ministry of Environment and Forest. It comes under Government of India.
4. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the Central Government?
a) Five
b) Ten
c) Twenty
d) Twenty Five
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Section-3, the Central Pollution Control Board can have maximum five officials nominated by the Central Government and not more than five persons nominated by the Central Government from amongst the members of State Boards.
5. In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can constitute?
a) One
b) Ten
c) Not constitute any committees
d) As many committees as necessary
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the constitution of committees, The State Pollution Control Board can constitute as many committees as necessary. The member of a committee shall be paid fees and allowances.
6. The Central Pollution Control Board plays an important role in abatement and control of pollution in the country.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board plays an important role in abatement and control of pollution in the country by providing scientific information, generating relevant data, training and development of manpower, etc.
7. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Mumbai
b) Raipur
c) Mysore
d) New Delhi
Answer: d
Explanation: The head office of the Central Pollution Control Board located in New Delhi. It consists of seven zonal offices and five laboratories. Here the board conducts environmental assessments and research.
8. Who decides the term of the Member Secretary in the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board
b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) Government of India
Answer: d
Explanation: Government of India decides the terms and services condition of the Member Secretary and also for the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board. Rest of the members shall hold office for a term of three years.
9. What is the full form of NAMP?
a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program
d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: NAMP stand for National Air Quality Monitoring Program. The Central Pollution Control Board runs nationwide programs of ambient air quality monitoring which is known as National Air Quality Monitoring Program.
10. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution constituted?
a) 1974
b) 1978
c) 1982
d) 1985
Answer: a
Explanation: The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution was constituted in 1974 by the Government of Karnataka in pursuance of the Water Prevention and Control Pollution Act, 1974.
11. In how many tier programs the inland water quality monitoring network is operating?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The inland water quality monitoring network is operating under a three tier program. The three tier programs are Global Environment Monitoring System, Monitoring of India National Aquatic Resources System and Yamuna Action Plan.
12. When did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted?
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
Answer: c
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal Act was constituted in 2010. It has been enacted with the objectives to provide for the establishment of a National Green Tribunal for the effective disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.
13. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the environment?
a) Brazil
b) Denmark
c) China
d) India
Answer: d
Explanation: In 1976, the Indian parliament passed the 42nd amendment to its constitution for safeguarding the environment. Thus India became the first country in the world to pass the amendment to safeguard the environment.
14. There are various pollution regulations are there.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Various pollution regulations are, a) The Water Act, 1974, b) The Water Cess Act, 1974, c) The Air Act, 1981, d) The Environmental Protection Act, 1986, e) Hazardous Waste Rules, 1989, f) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Nuclear Hazards and Accidents”.
1. Where was the first use of nuclear bombs which cause death to the millions of lives?
a) Karachi
b) Melbourne and Sydney
c) Hiroshima and Nagasaki
d) Tokyo
Answer: c
Explanation: The first nuclear bomb bombard to the twin cities of Japan Hiroshima and Nagasaki. The devastation that nuclear bombs caused to Hiroshima and Nagasaki is terrible. The radioactive waste from nuclear energy has caused, and continues to cause serious environmental damages.
2. Where was the first control fission of an atom carried out?
a) India
b) Japan
c) Russia
d) Germany
Answer: d
Explanation: The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in 1938. Nuclear fission is the splitting of the nucleus of the atom. This splitting of the nucleus results in energy that can be used for various purposes.
3. Which was the first country to develop an atomic bomb?
a) Russia
b) United States
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: b
Explanation: Though Germany is the first country where first controlled fission of an atom was carried, United State was the first country to develop an atomic bomb, which was subsequently dropped on the Japanese cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
4. Who made the famous “Atoms for Peace” speech?
a) Abraham Lincoln
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dwight D Eisenhower
d) Parker Chewier
Answer: c
Explanation: The 34th United States President in December 1953 gave a famous speech called “Atoms for Peace”. The speech figures out the production of electricity through nuclear reactors. It also says Atoms will provide a safe, clean and dependable source of electricity.
5. How many percentage of fissionable U-235 occurring in uranium?
a) 0.1%
b) 0.5%
c) 0.7%
d) 1.5%
Answer: c
Explanation: Naturally occurring uranium contains only 0.7% of fissionable U-235, which is not enough for most types of rectors. It is necessary to increase the amount of U-235 by enrichment, although it is a difficult and expensive process.
6. Nuclear energy is only harmful.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Nuclear energy can be both beneficial and harmful, depending on the way in which it is used. For example X-rays which are used to examine bone fracture is useful. Nuclear bombs are harmful for both organisms and environment.
7. When did Chernobyl disaster occurred?
a) 1976
b) 1986
c) 1996
d) 2000
Answer: b
Explanation: Chernobyl disaster occurred in 1986. Chernobyl is a small city in Ukraine. On 25 April 1986 the explosion blew the 1000 metric ton concrete roof from the reactor and the reactor caught fire. This results in the world’s worst nuclear accident.
8. Which State in India nuclear accident took place?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
Answer: a
Explanation: A small amount of nuclear accident observed in the villages and towns around the Kalpakkam Nuclear Station, south of Chennai in Tamil Nadu, in an ongoing study by Pugazhendi. It was took place in January 2003.
9. Which one of the following medical condition caused by the high exposure of radiation?
a) Kidney stone
b) AIDS
c) Mutation
d) Blood pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: Excessive exposure to the radiations leads to mutation, which are changes in the genetic makeup of the cells. Mutations can occur in the tissues of the body and may manifest themselves as abnormal tissue growth known as cancer.
10. What is the main purpose of nuclear energy?
a) To kill the enemy nation
b) To waste the excessive energy
c) To use it as an alternate source of energy
d) To cause mutation for people who are working
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear energy was developed by man as an alternate source of clean and cheap energy when compared to fossil fuels. Along with the benefits of nuclear energy, there have been a number of accidents which harm many lives.
11. Approximately how many percentage of electricity produced by nuclear power in the world?
a) 10
b) 14
c) 17
d) 20
Answer: c
Explanation: Approximately 17% of electricity produced by nuclear power in the world. Nuclear power is being used worldwide for the generations of electricity. With numerous harm effects of nuclear power the main advantage is to produce electricity from nuclear power.
12. Which is the main source of nuclear radiations?
a) Nuclear power plant
b) Sunlight
c) Atmospheric air
d) Volcanoes
Answer: a
Explanation: The main source of radiation is nuclear power plant and particularly from the core ad coolant of the reactor. The fission products produced during normal operations remain within the fuel element an also in nuclear wastes.
13. Which radioactive cause cancer in thyroid gland?
a) U-235
b) U-238
c) I-132
d) C-12
Answer: c
Explanation: Damage caused by different types of radiations depends on the penetration power and presence of source inside or outside the body. Radioactive iodine accumulates in thyroid gland and causes cancer.
14. The use of nuclear energy in the war had devastating effects on humans and on the earth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: During war nuclear power is used only once so far. The United States dropped two atomic bombs over the Japanese towns of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945. These two atomic bombs killed thousands of people.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Question Bank focuses on “Need for Public Awareness and Institutions in Environment”.
1. How can we achieve the prevention of environmental degradation?
a) By relying on the government to do all the jobs
b) By killing all animals in the forest
c) By creating public awareness among people about the importance of environment
d) By causing more and more pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: By making public to aware about the environmental importance we can achieve the prevention of environmental degradation. Prevention of environmental degradation must become a part of all our lives.
2. In which of the following way we can create awareness among people about environment efficiently?
a) By the help of mass media shows the importance of environment
b) By spreading through mouths
c) By forcefully insisting people to protecting environment
d) By making treaties with other countries
Answer: a
Explanation: Environmental management can only be possible through public awareness. Mass media such as newspaper, radio and television strongly influence public opinion. Through this mass media, we can create awareness for people about the importance of environment.
3. Which one of the following is the best way to protect environment by individuals?
a) By simply talking about environment
b) By killing organisms and cutting trees
c) By joining NGOs and involve themselves in environmental protection works
d) By simply sitting in a home
Answer: c
Explanation: There are several Governmental and Non-Governmental Organizations working towards environmental protection in our country. An individual can join an NGO that supports conservation and protect the environment.
4. What is the best way to educate school kids about the environment?
a) Teaching theory about environment in classes
b) Showing pictures and videos of environment in projector screen
c) Taking kids to national parks or sanctuaries
d) Taking kids to amusement parks
Answer: c
Explanation: The best way to educate school kids about the environment is by taking kids to national parks or sanctuaries. Kids get to know more about the environment when they directly spend some time in natural habitat and thus they come to know the importance of the environment.
5. When we will celebrate World Forestry Day?
a) 21 March
b) 22 April
c) 05 June
d) 11 July
Answer: a
Explanation: World Forestry Day is celebrated worldwide every year on 21st March at the international level in order to increase public awareness among communities about the contribution of forests to balance the life cycle on earth.
6. Individuals can play a major role in environment management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Individuals can reduce wastage of natural resources and they can put pressure on Government about forming strong policies to protect the environment and they can minimize the use of sources that lead to pollution and degradation.
7. In India when we will celebrate Wildlife Week?
a) Between April 1 and 8
b) Between July 1 and 8
c) Between August 1 and 8
d) Between October 1 and 8
Answer: d
Explanation: Wildlife Week is celebrated every year in India between October 1 and 8. It was first started in the year 1952 with the great vision of saving the life of the Indians animals by taking some critical steps.
8. When did the Bombay Natural History Society started?
a) 1883
b) 1894
c) 1903
d) 1916
Answer: a
Explanation: The Bombay Natural History Society began as a small society of six members in 1883. Its influence on wildlife policy building, research, popular publication’s and peoples action has been a unique feature of the multifaceted society.
9. Which is the India’s oldest conservation research based NGO?
a) Botanical Survey of India
b) Bombay Natural History Society
c) Centre for Environmental Education
d) Madras Crocodile Bank Trust
Answer: b
Explanation: Bombay Natural History Society is the India’s oldest conservation research based NGO and one that has been at the forefront of the battle for preservation of species and ecosystems. Its major contribution has been in the field of wildlife research.
10. Which is the first crocodile conservation breeding centre in Asia?
a) Madras Crocodile Bank Trust
b) Bombay Crocodile Bank Trust
c) Kolkata Crocodile Bank Trust
d) Mangalore Crocodile Bank Trust
Answer: a
Explanation: Madras Crocodile Bank Trust is the first crocodile conservation breeding centre in Asia. It was founded in 1976 to conserve Indian crocodiles and establish program for the conservation of other species of endangered reptiles.
11. Where we can see State Department of Environment?
a) State where there is no danger for environment
b) State where there is danger for environment
c) State where there is no adequate environment
d) In all States of India
Answer: d
Explanation: State Department of Environment is present in every state of India. It is responsible for improving the overall environmental quality within the state. The Department actively engages in environmental assessment.
12. Where is the head quarter of Wildlife Institute of India located?
a) New Delhi
b) Mysore
c) Dehradun
d) Bhopal
Answer: c
Explanation: The head quarter of Wildlife Institute of India located in Dehradun. It is a major training establishment for Forest Officials and for research in Wildlife Management. The organization added an enormous amount of information on India’s biological wealth.
13. When did the Zoological Survey of India established?
a) 1900
b) 1909
c) 1916
d) 1920
Answer: c
Explanation: The Zoological Survey of India was established in 1916. Its mandate was to do a systematic survey of the fauna in India. It has done an enormous amount of work on taxonomy and ecology.
14. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History founded by Salim Ali.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: SACON was Salim Ali’s dream but it became a reality only after his demise. Initially, this institution conceived as being a wing of the Bombay Natural History Society, it later evolved into an independent organization based at Coimbatore in 1990.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “International Environmental Centers”.
1. When did the Environmental Assessment Institute which is the independent body under the Danish Ministry of the Environment established?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Answer: c
Explanation: The Environmental Assessment Institute was an independent body under the Danish Ministry of the Environment. It was established in February 2002 by the Danish Government with the task of making environmental analyses.
2. Which institute in Sweden has the motto as “Bridging Science and Policy”?
a) Stockholm Environmental Institute
b) Yale Environmental Institute
c) Uppsala Environmental Institute
d) Lund Environmental Institute
Answer: a
Explanation: Stockholm Environmental Institute was formed in 1989. Its headquarters is in Stockholm in Sweden. The motto of Stockholm Environmental Institute is “Bridging Science and Policy”. The Swedish International Development Cooperation Agency is the main donor of SEI.
3. In how many countries the Stockholm Environmental Institute operates?
a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
Answer: d
Explanation: Stockholm Environmental Institute was an initiative of the Government of Sweden. SEI operates in seven countries they are Sweden, United Kingdom, United States, Estonia, Thailand, Colombia and Kenya.
4. Who many National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration research laboratories are there?
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Eleven
d) Sixteen
Answer: b
Explanation: There are seven NOAA research laboratories are there, they are Atlantic Oceanographic and Meteorological Laboratory, Air Resource Laboratory, Earth System Research Laboratory, Geophysical Lakes Environmental Research Laboratory, Great Lakes Environmental Research Laboratory, National Severe Storms Laboratory and Pacific Marine Environmental Laboratory.
5. Who founded Yale School of Forestry and Environmental studies?
a) Jorge Kindly
b) Gifford Pinchot
c) James Harry
d) Peter Mark
Answer: b
Explanation: Yale School of Forestry and Environmental studies was founded by Gifford Pinchot in 1900. He was the first Chief of the United States Forest Service. The School’s graduates have provided ongoing leadership in environment.
6. Only ten environmental research institutes are there in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are more than ten environmental research institutes are there in the world. These environmental research organizations undertake research on the sustainable management of resources which includes water, biodiversity and energy.
7. With respect to the World Environmental Center which one of the following option is correct?
a) It is a non-profit and advocacy organization
b) It is a profit and advocacy organization
c) It is a non-profit and non-advocacy organization
d) It is a profit and non-advocacy organization
Answer: c
Explanation: World Environmental Center is a global non-profit and non-advocacy organization that advances sustainable development through the business practices of member companies and in partnership with governments.
8. Making people aware of family planning is one of the solutions to overpopulation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Raising awareness among people regarding family planning and letting them know about the after effects of overpopulation can help to reduce the population growth. Provide knowledge about various safe sex techniques will reduce the population growth.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Population Growth “.
1. Which of the following is the main reason for not providing employment to the growing population?
a) Majority of the population own their business
b) Majority of the population have plenty of amounts with them
c) Majority of the population is poor
d) Majority of the population is illiterate
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to rapid population growth, providing employment to growing population is one of the biggest challenges. This is so because in developing economies the majority of the populations is illiterate. Every year number of illiterates increasing in numbers.
2. Where we can find over strained infrastructure due to population growth?
a) In rural areas
b) In forest areas
c) In desert areas
d) In urban areas
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to over population growth facilities such as housing, transportation, health care and education become inadequate. The worst symptoms of congestion in every aspect of living conditions are manifested in the urban areas.
3. Which one of the following is a result of overpopulation?
a) Adequate storage of natural resources
b) Pressure on land and other renewable resources
c) Increasing the amount of forest
d) Decrease the shortage of water
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to rapid population growth, there is a pressure on land and other renewable natural resources. Due to over exploitation of forest and water it results in desertification with permanent damage to renewable resources.
4. Which one of the following is the main reason for decrease in the per capita income?
a) Due to decrease in gross national product
b) Due to decrease in population growth
c) Due to increase in population growth
d) Due to equitable distribution of income
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to increase in population there is an inequitable distribution of income. The increase in gross national product is greatly reduced in per capita terms on account of the rapidly growing population.
5. According to 2011 census, what is the annual exponential growth rate in India?
a) 1.34%
b) 1.45%
c) 1.64%
d) 1.75%
Answer: c
Explanation: In spite of many attempts to check population growth, the birth rate is still high in India. Annual exponential growth rate is 1.64% as per as 2011 census. Overpopulation causes various problems to the ecosystem.
6. Over population growth causing disproportionate gender composition.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: According to 2001 census, national sex ratio is 940 females per 1000 males. Due to poverty female mortality is higher. Only Kerala and Pondicherry have more women percentage OF SEX RATIO than men.
7. What is the reason for poor standard of living and malnutrition in India?
a) Due to environmental conditions
b) Due to over population
c) Due to absence of natural resources
d) Due to the poor economy of India
Answer: b
Explanation: Standard of living in India is affected by its population. There is a great shortage of nourishment, especially in balanced diet which results in the malnutrition. This malnutrition causes various problems to humans.
8. Why it is impossible to provide employment to all the unemployed in India?
a) Due to lack of economy
b) Due to over population growth
c) Due to the absence of natural resources
d) Due to lack of interest among youths
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to over population it is impossible to provide employment to all the unemployed in India. Over population leads to increase the need of job among people. This over population is a great harm for per capita income among Indians.
9. What is the need to control the population growth in India?
a) To improve the standard of living among existing people
b) To utilize all the natural resources among the existing people
c) To participate in war among neighboring nations
d) To increase the mortality rate in India
Answer: a
Explanation: The need for controlling population is urgent and pressing so that the existing people may have an improved standard of living. Overpopulation cause various ill effects for both humans and as well as for the environment.
10. Which one of the following is the cause for overpopulation in India?
a) Birth rate is lower than the death rate
b) Birth rate is higher than the death rate
c) There is no death happening
d) Due to over pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: The common cause leading to over population in India is the birth rate is still higher than the death rate. Declining of death rate is achieved from medical technologies but the same cannot achieve for birth rates.
11. Which one of the following is the step to control population growth in India?
a) Killing all newborn babies
b) Not providing medical assistance to people
c) Lowering infant mortality rate
d) Early marriage to girls
Answer: c
Explanation: Lowering infant mortality rate can also help in solving the problem of population. It has been seen that mortality rate among poor children is high and because of this poor couples tend to have more kids.
12. What is India’s global rank in population?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: b
Explanation: India stands in second position after China in population. As of 2018 India’s yearly change percentage of population is 1.11%. China’s population to world share is 18.54%, whereas India’s world share is 17.74%.
13. Which one of the following can be a solution to overpopulation?
a) Neglecting family planning
b) Knowledge of sex education
c) Providing more facilities to the family consisting if more kids
d) Improper medical facilities
Answer: b
Explanation: Imparting sex education to young kids at elementary level will decrease the rate of over population in the upcoming years. Providing information about safe sex and about contraceptives for sexually active teenagers will reduce the population growth.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Human Rights”.
1. Which of the following are moral principles that describe certain standards of human behavior and are regularly protected as legal rights?
a) National rights
b) Human rights
c) Women rights
d) Men rights
Answer: b
Explanation: Human rights are rights inherent to human beings, whatever our place of residence, origin, nationality, sex, religion, language or any other status. These rights are all interrelated, interdependent and indivisible.
2. When did the Universal Declaration of Human Rights created?
a) 1947
b) 1948
c) 1949
d) 1950
Answer: b
Explanation: The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly at its third session on 10 December 1948. It was adopted as Resolution 217 at the Palais de Chaillot in Paris, France.
3. Which is the world’s first charter of human rights?
a) The Cyrus Cylinder
b) The Constitution of Media
c) Bill of Rights
d) The Magna Carta
Answer: a
Explanation: The Cyrus Cylinder which was created by King Cyrus the Great, it is the world’s first charter of human rights. It is translated into all six official languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
4. Which one of the following played an important role in international human rights law?
a) World war
b) Economic summit
c) The United Nations
d) Treaty of Baskerville
Answer: c
Explanation: The United Nations has played an important role in international human-rights law since its creation in 1945 at Yalta Conference. The allied powers agreed to create a new body to supplant the League’s role.
5. In which century human rights became a central concern over the issue of slavery?
a) 15 th
b) 17 th
c) 19 th
d) 21 th
Answer: c
Explanation: In the 19 th century, human rights became a central concern over the issue of slavery. This was achieved across the British Empire by the Slave Trade Act 1807. This Slave Trade Act was enforced internationally by the Royal Navy under treaties Britain negotiated with other nations.
6. Ancient peoples have the same modern day conception of universal human rights.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Ancient peoples did not have the same modern day conception of universal human rights. The true forerunner of human rights discourse was the concept of natural rights which appeared as part of the medieval natural law.
7. When did the Cairo Declaration on Human Rights in Islam adopted?
a) 1985
b) 1990
c) 1995
d) 2000
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cairo Declaration on Human Rights in Islam is a declaration of the member states of the Organization of Islamic Cooperation adopted at Cairo in Egypt on 5 August 1990. It provides an overview on the Islamic perspective on human rights.
8. In which country ‘Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen’ was adopted?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Denmark
Answer: b
Explanation: After French Revolution, in 1789 the ‘Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen’ was adopted by the National Constituent Assembly as the first step toward writing a constitution for the Republic of France.
9. When did the first Geneva Convention took place?
a) 1756
b) 1864
c) 1958
d) 2006
Answer: b
Explanation: The first Geneva Convention took place in 1864. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting a convention for the treatment of wounded soldiers in brutal combat. This saves thousands of lives.
10. Under whose chairmanship The United Declaration of Human Rights was adopted?
a) Eleanor Roosevelt
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Adolf Hitler
d) Queen Elizabeth
Answer: a
Explanation: In 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the United Nations. It was adopted under the dynamic chairmanship of Eleanor Roosevelt. Roosevelt, credited with its inspiration, referred to the Declaration as the international Magna Carta for all mankind.
11. How many articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 30 articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights which was adopted in 1948. This Universal Declaration of Human Rights is essential to promote the development of friendly relations between nations.
12. Which of the following Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights tells the right of nationality is depends on ones wish?
a) Article 10
b) Article 15
c) Article 20
d) Article 25
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 30 articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights which was adopted on December 10, 1948. Article 15 tells that, “Everyone has the right to a nationality” and “No one shall be arbitrary neither deprived of his nationality nor denied the right to change his nationality”.
13. When did the National Human Rights Commission of India constituted?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: d
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission of India was constituted on 12 October 1993. It is an autonomous public body. It was constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance in 1993.
14. Human rights and civil rights are the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Human rights and civil rights are different. Human rights are usually agreed upon rights that people of various groups believe all people regardless of gender, religion or any other status. Civil rights deal more with the agreed upon obligation on government owes to its people.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “HIV and AIDS”.
1. To which of the following disease HIV virus leads to?
a) Cancer
b) Brain tumour
c) AIDS
d) Hepatitis
Answer: c
Explanation: HIV is the virus that leads to AIDS. People can have HIV for years without having AIDS. Being infected with HIV does not mean suffering from AIDS. People with HIV who start treatment early in their infection, stay on treatment can prevent the disease from progressing to AIDS.
2. What is the full form of HIV?
a) Human immunodeficiency virus
b) Human immunodeficiency vessels
c) Health interexchange virus
d) Health immunodeficiency virus
Answer: a
Explanation: HIV stands for Human immunodeficiency virus. HIV is a virus spread through certain fluids in body that attacks the body’s immune system. If HIV is left untreated, it damaged the immune system over certain period.
3. Which cells are destroyed by HIV?
a) A- helper cells
b) K-helper cells
c) T-helper cells
d) Y-helper cells
Answer: c
Explanation: HIV attacks the immune system, specially the CD4 cells, often called T-helper cells and makes copies inside these cells. As HIV destroys more CD4 cells and makes more copies of itself, it gradually breaks down a person’s immune system.
4. Which is the second most common way of spreading HIV?
a) Sexual intercourse with HIV infected
b) Sharing needles
c) Sharing food
d) From infected mother to child
Answer: b
Explanation: Sharing needles is the second most common way that HIV is spreading. Sexual intercourse with HIV infected is the most common way of HIV spreading. Any person who shares needles with someone who is HIV positive is at risk for HIV.
5. What is the full form of AIDS?
a) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
b) Accepted immunodeficiency syndrome
c) Acquired immunodeficiency symptoms
d) Accepted immunodeficiency symptoms
Answer: a
Explanation: AIDS stands for Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. AIDS is the most severe phase of HIV infection. People with Aids have such badly damaged immune systems. That immune system gets an increase number of severe illness.
6. HIV is spread by mosquitoes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: HIV is not spread by mosquitoes. Even if mosquitoes could carry the HIV virus, they do not inject blood into skin. The only bodily fluids that are known to transmit HIV are semen, vaginal fluids, anal fluids, breast milk and blood.
7. How many stages are there in HIV infection?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three stages of HIV infection those are, a) acute HIV infection, b) clinical latency, and c) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome . People living with HIV may progress through these stages at different rates, depending on a variety of factors including their genetic makeup.
8. What is the symbol of HIV-positive people?
a) Blue ribbon
b) Yellow ribbon
c) White ribbon
d) Red ribbon
Answer: d
Explanation: The red ribbon is the symbol for solidarity with HIV-positive people and for those who are living with AIDS. HIV and Aids have a great impact on society as an illness and as a source of discrimination.
9. How many clinical staging systems are used to classify HIV and HIV related disease for surveillance purposes?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Two main clinical staging systems are used to classify HIV and HIV related disease for surveillance purpose. Those two clinical staging systems are the WHO disease staging system for HIV infection and disease and the CDC classification system for HIV infection.
10. When did the World Health Organization first proposed a definition for AIDS?
a) 1956
b) 1966
c) 1976
d) 1986
Answer: d
Explanation: The World Health Organization first proposed a definition for AIDS in 1986. After that, the WHO classification has been updated and expanded several times, with the most recent version which published in 2007.
11. What is India’s position in HIV infected in the world?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: c
Explanation: India has the third largest HIV epidemic in the world due to its large population size. India’s epidemic is concentrated among key affected population which also includes sex workers, gay sex and for transgender.
12. Which body is responsible for formulating policy and implementing programs for the prevention and control of HIV in India?
a) AIMS
b) IIT
c) IIM
d) NACO
Answer: d
Explanation: The National AIDS Control Organization was established in 1992. It is a devision of India’s Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NACO is the body responsible for formulating policy and implementing programs for the prevention and control of HIV in India.
13. In which country AIDS was first clinically observed?
a) India
b) The United States
c) Norway
d) Pakistan
Answer: b
Explanation: AIDS was first clinically observed in 1981 in the United States. The starting cases were a cluster of injecting drug users and homosexual men. Soon thereafter many more cases of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia and Kaposi’s sarcoma emerged in the United States.
14. There are many vaccines that prevent HIV completely.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no vaccine which completely prevents HIV as of now. HIV is a complicated virus that changes over time. This makes vaccine research difficult, and it takes a longer time to do the research and to invite the vaccine for completely cure of HIV.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Environment and Human Health”.
1. What is called for the chemicals which emit with vinyl floors?
a) Pathogens
b) Vinyl oxidize
c) Phthalates
d) Chorines
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to the addition of contaminates to the environment, it is discovered that children who lives in homes with vinyl floors which can emit hazardous chemicals called phthalates. It develops signs of autism in kids.
2. Which one of the following organization dedicated to protecting human health from environmental harms?
a) Environment and Human Health
b) Environmental and Scientific Science
c) Ecological Protection Organization
d) Ecological Science and Solutions
Answer: a
Explanation: Environmental and Human Health is dedicated to protecting human health from environmental harms through education, research and the promotion of public policies. Environmental and Human Health is increasingly concerned about health hazards.
3. Which one of the following cause harm to human health?
a) Organic farming
b) Using of pesticides
c) Using solar vehicles
d) Protecting forests
Answer: b
Explanation: Pesticides can harm to human health if they use in excess proportion in the environment. Pesticides are intentionally toxic substances linked to various diseases like cancer, birth defects, mutations and other health problems.
4. How many types of health hazards are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types of health hazards are physical hazards, chemical hazards and biological hazards. Physical hazards are global warming, UV radiations, Radioactive etc. Chemical hazards are combustion of fossil fuels, pesticides, heavy metals etc. Biological hazards are bacteria, viruses etc.
5. What is the other name for infectious diseases?
a) Non-communicable diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Non-transmissible diseases
d) Heredity diseases
Answer: b
Explanation: Infectious diseases also known as transmissible diseases or communicable diseases comprise clinically illness resulting from the infection, presence and growth of pathogenic biological agents.
6. Human health can be divided into internal factors and external factors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The two factors affecting human health are internal factors and external factors. The factors such as malfunctioning of the body parts, malfunctioning of immune system and genetic disorders, which exist within the human body, are called internal factors. Heart attack, Kidney failure etc are few examples of external factors.
7. What is called the term which refers to an unhealthful intake of dietary nutrients?
a) Healthy food
b) Foul food
c) Malnutrition
d) Nutritious food
Answer: c
Explanation: The term malnutrition refers to an unhealthful intake of dietary nutrients. Malnutrition may arise with inadequate or overabundant food intake, an imbalance of dietary nutrients or utilize the food we eat.
8. Which one of the following is a result of high exposure of radiation?
a) Loss of white blood cells
b) Hair loss
c) Tooth decay
d) Leg fracture
Answer: a
Explanation: High doses of radiation can be harmful or even it cause fatal to humans and it also damages environment. Doses above 100 rems usually cause the first signs of radiation. Loss of white blood cells happens due to more exposure to radiation.
9. How do pollutants reach humans?
a) By external factors
b) By internal factors
c) Pollutants never reach to humans
d) There is nothing called pollutants
Answer: a
Explanation: Pollutants reach humans through the food we eat, the water we drink, and the air we breathe and endanger our health in both immediate and long lasting ways. This pollutants cause various problems to human’s health and also to environment.
10. How many percentage of water approximately present in human body?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Answer: c
Explanation: The human body is mostly consists of 70% of water. Only 2.5% of water on the planet is drinkable and it becomes clear since our body consist of 70% water protecting our water supply is so important.
11. The current rates of disease are increasing at alarming speeds and most are closely linked with known____________________
a) Carcinogens
b) Invigorating
c) Organic farming
d) Balanced diet
Answer: a
Explanation: The current rates of disease are increasing at alarming speeds and they are linked with carcinogens. Carcinogens have become abundant in our environment in the last several decades. It consists of pesticides, artificial hormone etc.
12. Which one of the following is an effect due to environmental pollution for human health?
a) Increase in the male fertility
b) Decrease in the carcinogen cells
c) Decrease in the mental stress
d) Decrease in the male fertility
Answer: d
Explanation: Male infertility has been linked to pesticides, air pollution, exposure to lead, household flame-retardant, surfactants and water pollution. Continuous exposure for such environmental pollution will lower the sperm amounts in males.
13. Which one of the following can cause breast cancer in women?
a) Breastfeeding
b) Being physically fit
c) Using antiperspirant
d) Eating healthy food
Answer: c
Explanation: Antiperspirants are applied near the breast and contain potentially harmful ingredients. Breast cancer can be caused by using antiperspirant, a decrease in the occurrence and duration of breastfeeding and synthetic hormones found in food production.
14. There is a link between the environment and human health.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a direct link between the environment and human health. We harm our environment I many ways, it comes back to haunt us in the form of sickness and death. The more we cause trouble and disturb the environment the more we suffer from diseases.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Family Welfare Programs”.
1. After which incident family planning programs are initiated in most countries?
a) After industrial revolution
b) After World War 2
c) After British invasion to India
d) After the United States independence
Answer: b
Explanation: Since World War 2 family planning programs with either major or minimal government involvement have been initiated in most of the countries. This is due to the relatively rapid growth of the populations of some countries.
2. Which one of the following is the main target of family welfare programs?
a) Couples in the fertile age
b) Children below 12 years
c) Women after fertile age
d) Male after fertile age
Answer: a
Explanation: The target populations of family welfare programs are couples with fertile age groups. By providing contraception, sterilization, forming policies with respect to population limit we can control the population growth.
3. Which organization works as an administrative unit for implementation of Family Welfare Programme in all districts of the State and functioning at State Head quarter?
a) The District Family Welfare Bureau
b) The National Family Welfare Bureau
c) The State Family Welfare Bureau
d) The International Family Welfare Bureau
Answer: c
Explanation: The State Family Welfare Bureau is functioning at State Head quarter as an administrative unit for implementation of Family Welfare programme in all the districts of the State. The District Family Welfare Bureau functions in the district health office.
4. Which one of the following is the activity of the Family Welfare Programme?
a) Malnutrition programme
b) Child marriage
c) IUD programme
d) One child one nation policy
Answer: c
Explanation: Intrauterine device is one of the main programmes of the Family Welfare programme. IUD program leads to a big decline in teen pregnancies and it also decreases the rate of abortions.
5. What is the main aim of Janani Suraksha Yojana which is the programme by the Family Welfare programme?
a) To provide pensions to widow women
b) To provide shelters to poor people
c) To encourage people to use safe sexual methods
d) Reducing maternal and neonatal mortality
Answer: d
Explanation: Janani Suraksha Yojana is a safe motherhood intervention. It comes under the National Rural Heath Mission. It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality.
6. There are a number of problems in the adolescent period for females.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There are a number of problems arise in the adolescent period. Especially females face problems like low nutrition, low health status, early marriage, early pregnancy, low contraceptive prevalence etc.
7. When did Janani Suraksha Yojana launched?
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
Answer: b
Explanation: Janani Suraksha Yojana was launched in April 2005. It was launched by modifying the National Maternity Benefit Scheme. The National Maternity Benefit Scheme came into effect in 1995as one of the components of the National Social Assistance Programme .
8. Which is the first country to initiate a Family Planning program in the world?
a) Brazil
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) France
Answer: c
Explanation: India is the first country to initiate a Family Planning program in the world. In India family planning program is launched in 1952. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the government unit responsible for formulating and executing Family Planning in India.
9. When the Family Planning Insurance Scheme was introduced?
a) 2003
b) 2005
c) 2007
d) 2009
Answer: b
Explanation: Family Planning Insurance Scheme was introduced on 29 November 2005. It was introduced with Oriental Insurance Company to take care of cases of failure of sterilization or death resulting from sterilization.
10. Which is the first State in India to recognize the basic relevance of family planning to nation planning?
a) Kerala
b) Goa
c) Karnataka
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: d
Explanation: Tamil Nadu is the first Indian State to recognize the basic relevance of family planning to national planning. It was given national awards for outstanding work in family planning for many times. Hence Family Planning is successfully continuing in Tamil Nadu.
11. Why is family planning important?
a) For birth control issues
b) For having unwanted pregnancies
c) For having child every year
d) To get pregnant before the age of twenty
Answer: a
Explanation: Family planning is important for every sexually active adult to consider birth control issues. This is not only for the purpose of preventing unwanted pregnancies, but also to plan the timing of conception for unwanted pregnancies.
12. In a Hormonal method of family planning, maximum how many hormones are included?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There is a wide variety of family planning options available. In Hormonal method is one of the family planning options. These include maximum of two hormones, namely estrogen and progestin, or only progestin.
13. What is Natural Family Planning?
a) Not having sexual intercourse on the particular days when women is fertile
b) Not having sexual intercourse in any time
c) Having sexual intercourse irrespective of any period
d) Having sexual intercourse with the help of contraceptives
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural Family Planning refers to any method of contraception in which pregnancy is prevented by not having sexual intercourse on the particular days when the women are fertile. For this a careful study is made on woman’s menstruation cycle.
14. There are different types of family planning.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There are wide varieties of family planning options available. Some of them are broadly divided into the following categories, a) Barrier methods, b) Hormonal methods, c) Natural methods, d) Intrauterine devices, e) Permanent methods etc.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Genetic Diversity”.
1. Into how many types of biodiversity are classified?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: Biodiversity is defined as “The variety and variability among all groups living organisms and the ecosystems in which they occur”. Biodiversity is classified into three types, a) Genetic diversity, b) Species diversity and c) Ecosystem diversity.
2. What is called for a species with different genetic characteristics?
a) Up-species
b) Sub-species
c) Down-species
d) By-species
Answer: b
Explanation: A species with different genetic characteristics is known as a sub-species or genera. Within individual species, there are varieties, which are slightly different from one other. These differences are mainly due to the difference in the combination of genes.
3. Which are the basic units of hereditary information transmitter from one generation to other?
a) Cells
b) Bones
c) Bloods
d) Genes
Answer: d
Explanation: Genes are the basic units of hereditary information transmitted from one generation to the other. Due to the difference in the combination of genes, individual species are slightly varieties from one another within individual species.
4. Rice variety is an example for which of the following biodiversity?
a) Genetic diversity
b) Species diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
d) Community diversity
Answer: a
Explanation: Rive varieties is an example for genetic diversity. All rice varieties belong to the species “oryzasativa”. However there are thousands of rice varieties that show variation at the genetic level in the form of different shape, size, nutrient content and color.
5. Which foundation in 2007 found that genetic diversity and biodiversity are dependent upon each other?
a) National Geographical Foundation
b) National Animal Foundation
c) National Ecosystem foundation
d) National Science Foundation
Answer: d
Explanation: A study conducted by the National Science Foundation in 2007 found that genetic diversity and biodiversity are dependent upon each other that diversity within a species is necessary to maintain diversity among species.
6. Genetic diversity serves as a way for populations to adapt to changing environments.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Genetic diversity with more variation, it is likely that some individuals in a population will possess variations of alleles that are perfectly suited for the environment. Those individuals are more likely to survive to produce offspring bearing that allele.
7. What happens if there is a change in genetic diversity?
a) It leads to the loss of biological diversity
b) It leads to the loss of only human species
c) It leads to the pollution
d) It leads to more population
Answer: a
Explanation: The interdependence between genetic and species diversity is very delicate. Change in genetic diversity, such as in loss of species leads to a loss of biological diversity. Thus genetic diversity plays an important role.
8. In how many fold we can divide the importance of genetic diversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: We can divide the importance of genetic diversity into two fold. First, increased genetic diversity is directly attributed to the adaptive ability of a species and second, a population’s fitness is closely related to its common measure of genetic diversity.
9. Why genetic diversity plays an important role in the survival and adaptability of a species?
a) Ability of the population to adapt to the changing environment
b) Any population must remain same irrespective of the outer change in the environment
c) Environment remains same even if the population changes
d) Population inability to adapt to the changing environment
Answer: a
Explanation: When a population’s habitat changes, the population may have to adapt to survive the ability of the population to adapt to the changing environment will determine their ability to cope with an environmental challenge.
10. How genetic diversity helps in agriculture?
a) It makes crops to monocultures
b) It avoids monocultures of crops
c) It provides less yield
d) It provides diseases to crops
Answer: b
Explanation: Genetic diversity helps the crops to avoid the monocultures which are caused by the selective breeding of plants in the crop field. Little to no genetic diversity makes crops extremely susceptible to widespread diseases for crops.
11. When did the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture established?
a) 2007
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) 2010
Answer: a
Explanation: Commission of Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture was established in 2007. It provides a framework and guidelines for the management of animal genetic resources. Global Plan of Action for Animal Genetic Resources comes under Commission of Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.
12. If there is a threatened species in forest, what may be the reason for that?
a) Mutation
b) Diseases
c) Low genetic diversity
d) High genetic diversity
Answer: c
Explanation: Low genetic diversity is one of the reasons for the reason for threatened species. The natural world has several ways of preserving or increasing genetic diversity. Low genetic diversity and resulting poor sperm quality has made breeding and survivorship difficult for threatened species.
13. Which one of the following is a measure of genetic diversity?
a) Population
b) Environmental condition
c) Pollution
d) Nucleotide diversity
Answer: d
Explanation: Nucleotide diversity is the extent of nucleotide polymorphisms within a population. It is one of the measures for genetic diversity. It is commonly measured through molecular markers such as micro and mini satellite sequences.
14. Genetic diversity is not essential for a species to evolve.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Genetic diversity is essential for a species to evolve. With very little genetic diversity within the species, healthy reproduction becomes increasingly difficult and offspring are more likely to have problems resulting from inbreeding.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Species and Ecosystem Diversity”.
1. What is called for a discrete group of organisms of the same kind?
a) Genes
b) Community
c) Species
d) Column
Answer: c
Explanation: Species means discrete groups of organisms of the same kind. Species diversity is the diversity between different species. The sum of varieties of all living organisms at the species level is known as species diversity.
2. Approximately, how many species are assigned with scientific names?
a) Around 1 million
b) Around 1.5 million
c) Around 2 million
d) Around 2.5 million
Answer: b
Explanation: Scientific names are very important for identifying the characteristics of any species. The total number of species living on earth is approximately more than 2 million. However, only around 1.5 million are found and assigned scientific names.
3. What is the significance of spices diversity?
a) Species interacts with its environment and thus perform certain functions
b) Species minimize interaction with its environment and thus perform certain functions
c) Species never interacts with environment
d) Though species interacts with the environment it do no perform any functions
Answer: a
Explanation: The species interacts with its environment and thus performs certain functions. In a natural state, these interactions and consequently the system is in balance. The loss of one species affects many other species and causes imbalance.
4. How do human activities affect species diversity?
a) Due to over-exploitation of humans
b) Due to conserving the forests
c) Due to a decline in population growth in humans
d) Due to decrease in the pollution causing by industries
Answer: a
Explanation: Over-exploitation is one of the main threats to species diversity. They cause a gradual loss of species on local, regional and global levels. Additionally, over population and habitat conservation destroys natural balance.
5. How many components are there in species diversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three components in species diversity. They are species richness, taxonomic diversity and species evenness. Species richness is a simple count of species, taxonomic diversity is the genetic relationship between different groups of species, and species evenness quantifies how equal the abundances of the species.
6. We cannot calculate species diversity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: We can calculate species diversity. Species diversity in a dataset can be calculated by first taking the weighted average of species proportional abundances in the dataset, and then taking the inverse of this.
7. How will increasing species diversity affect ecosystem?
a) It increase the efficiency and productivity of an ecosystem
b) It increase only the efficiency and not productivity of an ecosystem
c) It do not increase the efficiency and productivity of an ecosystem
d) It only increase the productivity of an ecosystem
Answer: a
Explanation: By increasing species diversity in an ecosystem, both the efficiency and the productivity of an ecosystem will increase. A greater species richness and diversity may cause ecosystems to function more efficiently and productively by making more resources available for other species.
8. How many types of species are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of species. The three types of species are endemic species, exotic species and cosmopolitan species. Cosmopolitan distributions can be observed both in extinct and extant species.
9. What is called for the evolutionary process by which new biological species arise?
a) Speciation
b) Condensation
c) Evaporation
d) Admiration
Answer: a
Explanation: Speciation is the evolutionary process by which new biological species arise. There are four modes in speciation namely, a) Allopatric, Parapatric, Peripatric and Sympatric. Peripatric means formation of new species through evolution.
10. Which is the largest scale of biodiversity?
a) Species diversity
b) Genetic diversity
c) Cell diversity
d) Ecological diversity
Answer: d
Explanation: Ecological diversity is the largest scale of biodiversity. It includes the variation in both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. Ecological diversity is the variation in the ecosystems found in a region in ecosystems over the whole planet.
11. Which one of the following diversity boosts the availability of oxygen?
a) Species diversity
b) Ecosystem diversity
c) Genetic diversity
d) Cell diversity
Answer: b
Explanation: Ecosystem diversity boosts the availability of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis amongst plant organisms. Since Ecosystem diversity provide many useful things it is significant to human existence.
12. Which of the following is an example of ecosystem diversity?
a) Earth
b) Sun
c) River
d) Glass
Answer: c
Explanation: River ecosystem is an example of Ecosystem diversity. Rivers include fish, mussels, aquatic insects and a variety of planets. Ecosystem diversity explains the interaction between living organisms and physical environment in an ecosystem.
13. Apart from reduction of gene flow, what is the one more reason for speciation?
a) Morphological insulation
b) Geographical isolation
c) Area distribution
d) Mutation
Answer: b
Explanation: Geographic isolation is one of the reasons for speciation. Due to geographic isolation populations were prevented from interbreeding. Because of geographic isolation, rivers change course, mountains rise, continents drift, organisms migrate.
14. Forests are the only example of Ecosystem diversity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Forests are one of the examples of Ecosystem diversity and it is not the only example for Ecosystem diversity. Apart from forests, deserts, marine ecosystem, tundra, coral reefs, old growth forests and many more examples are there for Ecosystem diversity.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Value of Biodiversity & Bio-piracy”.
1. How many types of economical values are there for biodiversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Economically there are two main types of values of biodiversity are there. They are, a) Use value, and b) Non use value. In Use value there are three types namely direct values, indirect values, and option values. In Non use value there are two types namely bequest value and existence value.
2. What are called for the value of nature’s products that are consumed directly?
a) Productive value
b) Indirect value
c) Non-consumptive value
d) Consumptive value
Answer: d
Explanation: Consumptive values are the values of nature’s products that are consumed directly. Some of the examples of consumptive values are firewood’s, fodder and meat. Consumptive use value seldom appears in National income accounts.
3. “Flowers offered to the god” is an example of ___________________
a) Non-consumptive values of biodiversity
b) Consumptive values of biodiversity
c) Social value of biodiversity
d) Ethical values of biodiversity
Answer: c
Explanation: Biodiversity in India is important for its religious, spiritual and other cultural uses. Many plants and animals have ritual significance. The entire ecosystem is utilized for cultural and spiritual purposes.
4. Which one of the following values of diversity we can classified for ‘The beauty of waterfall in the Western Ghats’?
a) Ethical values
b) Social values
c) Option values
d) Aesthetic values
Answer: d
Explanation: Aesthetic value provides physical, intellectual and emotional satisfying for humans. Nearly everyone enjoys wildlife and joy makes our lives good lives. It will reduce the stress and give a great pleasure to eyes.
5. Why biodiversity is of great scientific value?
a) Because many species of plants and animals are the subjects of our research
b) Because biodiversity can be use only in space
c) Because biodiversity can only be useful for scientist
d) Because biodiversity provides only few products that helps for humans
Answer: a
Explanation: During the usage of many species for research and in turn we get a lot of knowledge on plants, insects and animals from this we find better ways of making medicines, hybrid plants, and many other things that are helpful to humans.
6. Biodiversity provides Option values.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Option values include unknown potential of biodiversity. There are many plants and animals which have not yet been discovered or even if they have been discovered we do not know the importance of such plants.
7. Which one of the following is the backbone of viable ecosystems on which we depend on for basic necessities?
a) Pollution
b) Atmosphere
c) Biodiversity
d) Pollination
Answer: c
Explanation: Biodiversity forms the backbone of viable ecosystems on which we depend on for basic necessities. These ecosystem services play an important role in the functioning of our climate and in both air and water quality.
8. What is called for the illegal collection of indigenous plants by corporations ho patent them for there own use?
a) Biopiracy
b) Biomagnifications
c) Biodegradation
d) Biodiversity
Answer: a
Explanation: Biopiracy means the commercial development of biological compounds by a technologically advanced country or organization without obtaining consent from the people or nations in whose territory the material were discovered.
9. Why we should not encourage biopiracy?
a) Because it kills the whole biodiversity
b) Because it doesn’t provide any useful for humans
c) Because it takes years of time
d) Because it creates inequality between nations
Answer: d
Explanation: Greenpeace claims a strong opposition for biopiracy. They claim these practices contribute to inequality between developing countries rich in biodiversity, and developed countries which hosts companies that involve n biopiracy.
10. Why India has been traditionally one of the targets of biopiracy?
a) Because India has more population
b) Because India has large amount of biodiversity
c) Because India’s don’t use biodiversity
d) Because India do not impose any punishment for biopiracy
Answer: b
Explanation: The countries most affected by biopiracy are the most biodiverse. India is the country which has large amount of biodiversity. Because of the richness in biodiversity many countries illegally make patents to the Indian indigenous plants.
11. Which of the following professions are highly affected by biopiracy?
a) Politicians
b) Actors
c) Businessman
d) Farmers
Answer: d
Explanation: Biopiracy is highly affected o farmers. Biopiracy is widely affects the countries which are highly relying on agriculture. Farmers worldwide are outraged that plants they developed are being hijacked by companies.
12. Why we should take strict action against biopiracy in India?
a) Because Indian population is high
b) Because India carrying the Earth’s richest biodiversity
c) Because Indian Area is less
d) Because Indian policies are not efficient
Answer: b
Explanation: India carrying the Earth’s richest biodiversity. It is very much vulnerable to biopiracy. There has been indiscriminate exploitation of traditional knowledge without equitable sharing of benefits. Hence there is an urgent need to make amendments to avoid biopiracy.
13. Biopiracy is legal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Biopiracy is illegal because, in violation of international conventions and corresponding domestic laws, it does not respect or adequately compensate the rightful owners of the life forms appropriated.
14. When did Convention on Biological Diversity established?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: d
Explanation: Convention on Biological Diversity is one of the actions taken against biopiracy. It was established in 1993. It establishes sovereign national rights over biological sources and commits the countries which are the members to conserve them.
This set of Energy and Environment Management written test Questions & Answers focuses on “Convention on Biological Diversity, India as a Mega Diversity Nation”.
1. How many main goals are there in the Convention on Biological Diversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The Convention on Biological Diversity has three main goals including the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.
2. In which year the Convention on Biological Diversity signed?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Explanation: The Convention on Biological Diversity signed on 5 June 1992. It was signed in Rio de Janeiro. As of now there are 196 parties and 168 signatories are there. Secretary General of the United Nations is the depositary.
3. Where did the 10th Conference of Parties which happened to the Convention on Biological Diversity take place?
a) India
b) China
c) Russia
d) Japan
Answer: d
Explanation: Though the Convention on Biodiversity signed in 1992, it entered into force on 29 December 1993. In 2010, the 10th Conference of Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity in October in Nagoya, Japan.
4. Which one of the following where the Convention on Biological Diversity dealt with?
a) Sharing the results of research of genetic resource with the Contracting party
b) Sharing the results of research of genetic resource with the enemy nation
c) Sharing the results of research of genetic resource with who offer high price
d) Never share the results of research of genetic resource
Answer: a
Explanation: The Convention on Biological Diversity dealt with the issue of sharing the results of research and development from the commercial of genetic resources with the Contracting Party providing such resources.
5. When did the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety adopted?
a) January 2000
b) March 2000
c) September 2000
d) December 2000
Answer: a
Explanation: The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety which is also known as the Biosafety Protocol was adopted in January 2000. The Biosafety Protocol clearly said that products from new technologies must be based on the precautionary principle.
6. The first ordinary meeting of the parties of Convention on Biological Diversity took place in the year 1994. .
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The first ordinary meeting of the parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity took place in the months of November and December 1994, in Nassau, Bahamas. It is known as 1994 Conference of the parties .
7. When did the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resource adopted?
a) 19 June 2010
b) 23 July 2010
c) 29 0ctober 2010
d) 31 December 2010
Answer: c
Explanation: The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. It entered into force on 12 October2014. Its objective is the equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.
8. Which event provided conditions for high levels of biological diversity in India?
a) Biological events in the atmosphere
b) Geological events in the rivers
c) Biological events in the rivers
d) Geological events in the landmass
Answer: d
Explanation: Geological events in the landmass have provided conditions for high levels of biological diversity in India. A split in the single continent around 70 million years ago led to the formation of northern and southern continents, with India as part of Gondwanaland along with other continents.
9. How can we say India as one of the bio-rich nations?
a) Because of its great variety of plants and animals
b) Because of its low variety of planets and animals
c) Because of the more population of humans
d) Because of more pollution
Answer: a
Explanation: India is one of the top countries in the bio-richness. This is because for its great variety of plants and animals. Many of the plants and animals are not found elsewhere. It is estimated that the number of unknown species found in India could be several times higher.
10. Into how many terms Whittaker described for measuring biodiversity over spatial scales?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1972, Whittaker described three terms for measuring biodiversity over spatial scales. The three terms are alpha, beta, and gamma diversity. Alpha diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area.
11. Who introduced the term hotspot of diversity?
a) Darwin
b) McLean
c) Mike Housie
d) Myers
Answer: d
Explanation: In the year 1988, Myers introduced the term hotspot of biodiversity. Hotspots of biodiversity are areas which exhibit high species richness as well as high species endemism. To qualify as a hotspot a region must contain at least 1500 species of vascular plants and it should lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat.
12. How many mega diverse countries are there in the world?
a) 11
b) 17
c) 25
d) 34
Answer: b
Explanation: In 1998, Conservation International identified 17 mega diverse countries. The term mega diverse country refers to any one of the group of nations that contains the majority of Earth’s species and high number of endemic species.
13. India is one of the mega diverse countries among 17 nations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: India is one of the mega diverse countries. India contains majority of Earth’s species and high numbers of endemic species. India has the great variety of ecological conditions prevailing. India vast diversity helps it to become a mega diverse nation.
14. How many percent of the world’s species found in India?
a) Around 7.8%
b) Around 10.5%
c) Around 12.4%
d) Around 15.7%
Answer: a
Explanation: Biodiversity is not distributed evenly across the globe. India is one of country where biodiversity is not distributed evenly. India is a mega diverse country has only 2.4% of the land area of the worlds, but accounts around 7.8% of the species of the world.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Endemic and Endangered Species of India”.
1. In terms of the number of threatened mammals, what is India’s rank in the world?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: d
Explanation: In India there are 410 species of mammals. Which are spread over 13 orders out of which nearly 89 species are listed as threatened in the International Union for Conservation of Natural Resources Red List of Threatened Animals. Indonesia stands in first place with 185 threatened mammal species.
2. Which is the only surviving member used to be considered of an amphibian family called the Nasikabatrachidae until 2006?
a) Indian yellow frog
b) Indian white frog
c) Indian green frog
d) Indian purple frog
Answer: d
Explanation: The Indian purple frog used to be considered as the only surviving member of an ancient amphibian family called the Nasikabatrachidae until 2006. In 2006, this family was incorporated into the Sooglossidae.
3. Which one of the following endemic species of tarantula found only in a small area in India?
a) Gooty tarantula
b) Cobalt blue tarantula
c) Pink toe tarantula
d) Chilean rose tarantula
Answer: a
Explanation: Gooty tarantula is a beautiful species of tarantula which is found only in a small area of less than 100 square kilometers of Andhra Pradesh in India. Despite its venomous nature, the tarantula is one of the costliest pets in the exotic pet trade.
4. In which part of India we can found fan-throated lizard?
a) Northern India
b) Western India
c) Southern India
d) Eastern India
Answer: c
Explanation: The fan-throated lizard is a species of agamid lizard which is found in Southern India. One of the specialties of male fan-throated lizard is dewlap which is used to woo a would-be partner by puffing it into a fan.
5. Which is the only representative of artiodactyls mammals Porcula?
a) Pygmy hog
b) Red river hog
c) Giant forest hog
d) Bearded hog
Answer: a
Explanation: The pygmy hog is the sole representative of Porcula. This conservation of endangered species is important because its extinction would result in the loss of a unique evolutionary branch of pigs. Presently there are only found in Assam with less than 150 individuals.
6. There is no difference between endangered and endemic species.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are differences between endangered and endemic species. Endangered species are that thought to be in danger of extinction, implying that there are so few remaining of their kind. Endemic species are plants and creatures that exist just in one geographic area.
7. In which tiger reserve we can find more number of brown palm civet animals?
a) Periyar tiger reserve
b) Sunderban tiger reserve
c) Jim Corbett tiger reserve
d) Kalakkad Mundanthurai tiger reserve
Answer: d
Explanation: Brown palm civet is one of the endemic species of India. Brown palm civets are nocturnal and solitary. It is endemic to the rain forests of the Western Ghats in South India, mostly appear in Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
8. Which of the following was listed as one of the vulnerable species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature?
a) Elephants
b) The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros
c) Pink-headed duck
d) Sumatran Rhinoceros
Answer: b
Explanation: A Vulnerable species is a species of animals or plants which are likely to become endangered unless something changes. The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros are listed as one of the vulnerable species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature. Poaching of horns is an important reason for the decline in the number.
9. Which is the state animal of Tamil Nadu which is also one of the most endangered species in India?
a) Blackbuck
b) Indian elephant
c) Nilgiri tahr
d) Indian giant squirrel
Answer: c
Explanation: The Nilgiri tahr is one of the endangered species in India. It has a stocky coat with a bristly mane, curved horns and short fur. It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu. Continuous poaching activities and Eucalyptus cultivation are the reasons for its decrease in the numbers.
10. Which one of the following is the national animal for two countries and also the endangered species of India?
a) Fennec fox
b) Baird’s tapir
c) Bengal tiger
d) Komodo dragon
Answer: c
Explanation: Bengal tiger is considered as the national animal of two major countries India and Bangladesh. Bengal tigers are fast vanishing due to human interference and poaching cases. Because of this it is one of the most endangered species found in India.
11. Which state in India is the home to a large population of one of the endangered species in India Asiatic Lion?
a) Karnataka
b) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan
d) Gujarat
Answer: d
Explanation: Gujarat in India is home to a large population of Asiatic Lion. As per the facts presented by World Wildlife fund, the Asiatic Lion can be only found in India. The Asiatic Lions are renowned as the second largest feline species in the world after the tigers.
12. Who discovered a critically endangered species of tarantula Rameshwaram parachute spider?
a) James Scottish
b) Andrew Smith
c) Nicholas Anderson
d) Leonardo Thomson
Answer: b
Explanation: Rameshwaram parachute spider was discovered by Andrew Smith in 2004 from a sacred grove in Rameshwaram. It was named after the Indian island of Rameshwaram. It is a critically endangered species of tarantula.
13. Blackbuck is one of the endangered species found in India.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Various activities like hunting, poaching, and overgrazing and habitat destruction have led to a drastic downfall in the blackbuck population. One more important reason for immensely decreasing in blackbuck population is the large-scale conversion of their habitats into agriculture fields. Because of these many reason blackbuck is one of the endangered species found in India.
This set of Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “Biogeographic Classification of India”.
1. How many biogeographic zones are there in India?
a) Five
b) Ten
c) Fifteen
d) Twenty
Answer: b
Explanation: There are ten biogeographic zones in India. They are as follows, a) Trans Himalayan zone, b) Himalayan zone, c) Desert zone, d) Semiarid zone, e) Western ghat zone, f) Deccan plateau zone, g) Gangetic plain zone, h) North east zone, i) Coastal zone, j) Islands present near the shore line.
2. What is Trans Himalayas?
a) The Himalayan ranges immediately north of the Great Himalayan range
b) The Himalayan ranges immediately south of the Great Himalayan range
c) The Himalayan ranges immediately east of the Great Himalayan range
d) The Himalayan ranges immediately west of the Great Himalayan range
Answer: a
Explanation: The Trans Himalayan region consists with its sparse vegetation and it has the richest wild sheep and goat community in the world. We can also find one of the endangered species snow leopard here.
3. Into how many ranges Trans Himalayas divided?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: Trans Himalayas are divided into four ranges namely, a) Ladakh range, b) Zaskar Range, c) Karakoram Range, and d) Kailash range. The Trans Himalaya was named by Swedish explorer Sven Hedin.
4. Into how many ranged Himalayas are divided?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: Himalayas are divided into three ranges namely, a) Siwalik or Outer Himalayas, b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas, c) Himadri or Greater Himalayas. The Himalayas form a mountain range in Asia. It separates the plains of the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.
5. What is called for the transitional zone between the desert and the denser forests of the Western Ghats?
a) Deccan Plateau
b) North-West Desert Regions
c) North-East India
d) Semi-Arid Areas
Answer: d
Explanation: Semi-Arid Areas are the transitional zone between the desert and the denser forests of the Western Ghats. The natural vegetation of the Semi-Arid Areas is thorn forest. Leopards, snakes, jackals and many more animals are found in this region.
6. India is called as a mega diversity country.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: India has different climate and topography in different parts and its biogeographic classification various in different parts and hence India is termed as a mega diversity country. India stands 10th position among plant rich countries of the world.
7. Among the ten different biogeographic zones in India, which zone is the largest biogeographic region?
a) Himalayas
b) Desert
c) Semi-Arid
d) Deccan plateau
Answer: d
Explanation: Deccan Plateau zone is India’s largest biogeographic region. It accounts 42% of the total geographical area in India. Deccan Plateau zone of peninsular India is by far the most extensive zone, covering India’s finest forest.
8. How many levels of planning are used for the biogeographical classification in India?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: In India, the biogeographical classification uses four levels of planning. The four levels of planning are as follows, a) The Biogeography Zone, b) The Biotic Province, c) The Land Region, and d) The Biome.
9. Which one of the following is the ecological problems being faced by the semi-arid zones in India?
a) Organic farming
b) Rural development
c) Animals conflict
d) Desertification
Answer: d
Explanation: Desertification is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone. The continuous expansion of deserts, into the previously semi-arid regions is indeed a serious manifestation of the effects of land degradation and intensive soil erosion.
10. Which biogeographic zone is considered as one of the 25 biodiversity hot-spots globally?
a) Deccan plateau
b) Western Ghats
c) Deserts
d) Himalayas
Answer: b
Explanation: The Western Ghats are considered as one of the 25 biodiversity hot-spots present globally. In Western Ghats, the varied climate and diverse topography create a wide array of habitats that support unique sets of plant and animal species.
11. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet each other at which hills?
a) Ananthagiri hills
b) Coonoor hills
c) Biligiriranga hills
d) Munnar hills
Answer: c
Explanation: The Biligiriranga hills links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats. It run east from the Western Ghats to the River Kaveri and forms a forested ecological corridor that connects the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
12. Which is the largest unit of the Great Plain of India?
a) Brahmaputra plain
b) Punjab-Haryana plain
c) Gangetic plain
d) Godavari plain
Answer: c
Explanation: Gangetic plain is the largest unit of the Great Plain of India. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the Ganga and the Brahmaputra which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
13. In India, how many groups of islands are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two groups of islands found in India. The two groups of islands are the Arabian Sea Islands and Bay Islands. The Arabian Sea Islands are of subsequent coral formations. The Bay Islands lay only about 220 km.
14. The Indian coasts do not vary on their characteristics and structures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The Indian coasts vary in their characteristics and structure. For example, the west coast is narrow except around the Gulf of Cambay and the Gulf of Kutch. In the south, it is wider along the south Sahyadri.
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Human-Wildlife Conflicts, Threats and Conservation of Biodiversity”.
1. What is called for any interaction between humans and wildlife that result in negative impacts on cultural life or on the environment?
a) Human-wildlife interactions
b) Human-wildlife services
c) Human-wildlife adjustment
d) Human-wildlife conflict
Answer: d
Explanation: The above definition is given by the World Wide Funds for Nature . The conflicts take many forms ranging from loss of life or injury to humans, and animals competition for scarce. Human-wildlife conflict occurs when growing human population overlaps with established wildlife territory.
2. Which one of the following is the cause for man-wildlife conflicts?
a) Reduction in the availability of natural food resources
b) Increase in the forest area
c) Adequate rainfall
d) Curiosity of wildlife animals that leads for the invasion to outside the forest area
Answer: a
Explanation: Human population expands into wild animal habitats is one of the reasons for displaced of natural wildlife territory of wildlife. Reduction in the availability of natural prey leads to wild animals seeking alternate sources.
3. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
a) Damage to human property
b) Increase in the forest area
c) Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
d) Destruction of habitat
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart for the increase in the forest area, the above three options are the outcomes of man-wildlife conflict. Man-wildlife conflicts occur with various negative results. Due to these conflicts there is also the chance for the collapse of wildlife populations and reduction of geographic ranges.
4. The Jim Corbett National Park is famous for notable man-eaters _________________
a) Leopard
b) Tiger
c) Bear
d) Lion
Answer: a
Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand. In this National Park, Leopard of Panar, Leopard of Rudraprayag and Leopard of the Mulher Valley have claimed thousands of human and cattle lives.
5. How many types of management techniques of wildlife are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Management techniques of wildlife are of two types. The first types are the traditional one. This traditional technique aims to stop or minimize the conflict by controlling animal population in different ways. Another technique includes translocation, preservation and regulation of animal populations.
6. World Wide Fund for Nature playing an important role in reducing human-wildlife conflicts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: To reduce human-wildlife conflicts, World Wide Fund for Nature has partnered with a number of organizations to provide solutions for human-wildlife conflicts around the globe. Their solutions are tailored to the community and species involved.
7. Which one of the following is a way to reduce human-wildlife conflict?
a) Killing all the wild animals
b) Shifting all the wild animals from natural forests to zoo
c) Use of strobe lights
d) Kill the animals when they invade outside the forests
Answer: c
Explanation: Strobe lights help to scare off destructive nocturnal wildlife. Wary nocturnal have been shown to avoid such light signals. Half strobe light and half motion sensor, the machines flash beams of light randomly in all directions to mimic a farmer with a flashlight.
8. Which one of the following is the major threat for biodiversity?
a) Reduction in the cutting of trees
b) Increase in the number of trees
c) Climate change
d) Balance in the predator and prey in forests
Answer: c
Explanation: Climate change is one of the major threats for biodiversity. Climate is a major factor in the distribution of species across the globe, climate change forcers them to adjust. But many are not able to adjust and that cause them to die.
9. Habitat destruction which results in the threat to biodiversity is resulted due to__________________
a) Agricultural industries
b) Decrease in the human population
c) Adequate rainfall
d) Decrease in the human-wildlife conflicts
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary cause of loss of biodiversity is habitat destruction which is resulted due to commercial activities associated with agriculture, irrigation, fishing etc. Extra land is needed to grow more edible goods and more land has to be cleared to meet these needs.
10. How do invasive species affect the biodiversity?
a) It helps the native species to survive furthermore
b) It forms a close bond with the native species and protects the biodiversity
c) It threaten the survival of the native species
d) It stays for few days without harming the biodiversity
Answer: c
Explanation: Invasive species are the non-native species that invade healthy ecosystems and threaten the survival of the native species either by attacking them or competing with them for the habitat’s resources.
11. What does the acronym “HIPPO” full form, which describes the main causes for threats to biodiversity?
a) Habitat destruction, Invasion species, Pollution, Polarization, and Over-harvesting
b) Habitat destruction, Invasion species, Pollution, Population, and Over-harvesting
c) Habitat destruction, Increase in the species, Pollution, Population, and Ozone depletion
d) Human- wildlife conflict, Invasion species, Polarization, Population, and Over-harvesting
Answer: b
Explanation: Acronym “HIPPO” stands for Habitat destruction, Invasive species, Pollution, Population, and Over-harvesting. This acronym was proposed by Edward Osborne Wilson who is an American Biologist.
12. What is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
a) Unprotected areas
b) Depleted areas
c) Exploited areas
d) Protected areas
Answer: d
Explanation: In-situ conservation is one of the types of biodiversity conservation. In-situ conservation involves protection of flora and fauna within its natural habitat. The four types of protected areas are as follows, a) Biosphere reserves, b) National parks, c) Wildlife sanctuaries, d) Gene sanctuaries.
13. Gene bank is one of the ways for biodiversity conservation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Gene bank is one of the types which come under Ex-situ conservation of biodiversity. Genetic variability is preserved by gene bank normal growing conditions. These are cold storages where germ palm are kept under controlled temperature and humidity for storage.
14. Which one of the following is the way for conservation of biodiversity?
a) Increase in the pollution level in the ecosystem
b) Converting forest land into agricultural land in rapid way
c) Removal of exotic species
d) Overexploitation
Answer: c
Explanation: Removal of exotic species is one of the ways for conservation of biodiversity. It will allow the native species that they have negatively impacted to recover their ecological niches. Removal of exotic species is practical only given large groups of individuals due to the economic cost.
