Mechatronics Pune University MCQs
Mechatronics Pune University MCQs
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Elements of Mechatronics System”.
1. Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?
a) Japan
b) Japan
c) Europe
d) Europe
Answer: a
Explanation: The word Mechatronics was first used in Japan in the late 1960s, spread through Europe and now commonly used in all other parts of the world. In the 1980s there was a veritable explosion in Microprocessor based products.
2. A servo motor is a typical example of _____
a) Electronics system
b) Mechanical system
c) Computer system
d) Mechatronics system
Answer: d
Explanation: A servo motor is a typical example of a mechatronics system. It is a motor with sensory feedback and it is used for obtaining very complex and precise motions.
3. What is the function of an input signal conditioning unit?
a) To produce control signals
b) To amplify the signal and convert it into digital form
c) To perform mechanical work
d) To produce electrical signals
Answer: b
Explanation: Input signal conditioning devices amplify the signals, converts them into digital form, and supplies the conditioned input signals to digital control. Control signals are produced by digital control. Mechanical actuators perform mechanical work. Electrical signals are produced by input sensors.
4. The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator and rotor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator and rotor. The electrical components consist of field windings and rotor windings, circuitry for power transmission.
5. The main function of Actuator is _____
a) To produce motion
b) Detect input
c) Detect output
d) Detect the state of the system
Answer: a
Explanation: The Actuators produce motion and cause some actions whereas sensors detect the state of system parameters, inputs and outputs.
6. Example of ‘Stand-alonesystem’ is _____
a) Machining centres
b) Washing machine
c) Robots for parts handling
d) Automated inspection stations
Answer: b
Explanation: The example of a stand-alone system is the washing machine. Machining centres, robots for parts handling and automated inspection system are large factory systems.
7. Which among the following carry out the overall control of a system?
a) Graphical display
b) Sensors
c) Actuators
d) Digital controls
Answer: d
Explanation: The overall control of the system is carried out by digital controls. Graphical display provides visual feedback. The actuators produce motion and cause some actions whereas sensors detect the state of system parameters,inputs and outputs.
8. A humanoid robot is an example of _____
a) Artificial intelligence
b) Stand-alone systems
c) Large factory systems
d) High level distributed sensor microcontroller actuator
Answer: a
Explanation: Humanoid robot is an example of a system that incorporates intelligent control or artificial intelligence. The example of a Stand-alone system is washing machine whereas wire aircraft and automated inspection stations are examples of high level distributed sensor and large factory systems respectively.
9. Where is the feedback generated by sensors in a mechatronics system given?
a) Input sensors
b) Comparators
c) Mechanical actuators
d) Output sensors
Answer: b
Explanation: The feedback signal is given to comparator, which compares the desired input signal to the feedback signal to produce an error signal. Input sensor detects the input signal. Output sensors produce the output.
10. A Mechatronics system contains feedback.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback signals are generated by sensors of mechatronics system, given to comparators to produce the error signal if any.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechatronics Design Process”.
1. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design process?
a) Hardware integration and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modeling
d) Modeling and simulation
Answer: d
Explanation: Modeling and simulation involve the representation of physical systems by suitable models for describing the behavior characteristics such as block diagram. Hardware design and simulation is a part of prototyping. Conceptual design and mathematical modeling come under modeling and simulation.
2. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
a) Fluid valves
b) Automatic machine tools
c) Industrial robots
d) Microprocessors
Answer: a
Explanation: First level of the mechatronic system is a basic control system which integrates electrical signal with mechanical action. An example of this level is a fluid valve. Automatic machine tools and industrial robots come under the second level and the microprocessor in the third level respectively.
3. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Interface design is a part of software integration which involves the Operating system. Hardware integration involves process design and electronic design respectively.
4. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
c) Advanced control strategy level
d) Providing artificial intelligence
Answer: a
Explanation: Role of the second level is to integrate Microelectronics into electrically controlled devices. Integration of electrical signal with mechanical action, Advanced control strategy, and artificial intelligence comes under the first, third and fourth level of mechatronics design respectively.
5. Microprocessor based electrical motors are used for ____
a) Prediction of fault in the system
b) Correction before a fault occurs
c) Actuation purpose in robots
d) Providing intelligence
Answer: c
Explanation: Microprocessor based electrical motors are used for actuation purpose in robots. The other functions such as Correction before a fault occurs, Providing intelligence or prediction of fault in the system is done using Artificial intelligence.
6. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Deployment is the third main step in the process of a mechatronics design process. It is associated with the final product, Embedded software deployment, and life cycle.
7. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
b) Modeling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment
Answer: a
Explanation: Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Conceptual design and mathematical modeling come under modeling and simulation.
8. What is the function of “analysis” in the modeling and simulation phase?
a) Database for maintaining project information
b) Sub models for eventual reuse
c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
Answer: c
Explanation: Analysis provides numerical methods for frequency domain, time domain, and complex domain design. Database for maintaining project information, Sub-models for eventual reuse are part of project management. High-level source codes are produced by the code generator.
9. Describing the behavior characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
a) Modeling and simulation
b) Prototyping
c) Deployment
d) Design optimization
Answer: a
Explanation: In Modeling and simulation, physical systems are represented by a suitable model for describing the behavior characteristics such as a block diagram. Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Deployment is associated with the final product, Embedded software deployment, and life cycle.
10. Prototyping involves ____
a) Conceptual design
b) Replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
c) Database for maintaining project information
d) Sub models for eventual reuse
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping involves replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware. Conceptual design and mathematical modeling come under modeling and simulation. Database for maintaining project information, Sub-models for eventual reuse are part of project management.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “ Measurement Systems ”.
1. What converts physical input into output, among the basic parts of a measuring system?
a) Transducer or sensor
b) Signal conditioning
c) Intelligence
d) Display
Answer: a
Explanation: A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input to output especially voltage. Signal processor performs functions such as filtering and amplification. Intelligence enables sensor level of signal processing the ability to communicate with other sensors and subsystems. The display is used for online monitoring or processing.
2. The analog to digital conversion in a measurement system takes place inside _____
a) transducer
b) signal processor
c) display
d) led
Answer: b
Explanation: A signal processor is used for the purpose of analog to digital conversion in a measuring system. A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input to output especially voltage. The display is used for online monitoring or processing.
3. A thermocouple is a transducer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermocouple is a transducer that converts temperature into a small voltage. These are generally used for temperature measurement.
4. The light emitting diodes are used as a/an ____
a) intelligence
b) display
c) transducer
d) sensor
Answer: b
Explanation: The light emitting diodes are used as display devices. A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input to output especially voltage. Intelligence enables sensor level of signal processing the ability to communicate with other sensors and subsystems.
5. Which type of error is caused due to friction or electrical capacitance?
a) Hysteresis
b) Zero
c) Systematic
d) Random
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis errors are always due to friction or electrical capacitance. Systematic errors always have the same and consistent value. Random errors are unpredictable and varying.
6. Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value. It is always given in percentage of the full-scale output of the measurement system.
7. Which type of error always has the same and consistent value?
a) Random errors
b) Systematic errors
c) Zero errors
d) Hysteresis errors
Answer: b
Explanation: Systematic errors always have the same and consistent value. Random errors are unpredictable and varying. Hysteresis errors are always due to friction and electrical capacitance.
8. The largest value for which the instrument output remains zero is ____
a) hysteresis error
b) resolution
c) sensitivity
d) dead zone
Answer: d
Explanation: Dead zone is the largest value of the measured variable for which the instrument output stays zero. Hysteresis errors are always due to friction and electrical capacitance. Sensitivity is the smallest absolute amount of change that can be detected by a measurement. Resolution is the discrete nature of the measurement system which will not allow them to follow an exactly continuous change in measurand.
9. The function of the data transmission element is ____
a) to transfer data from one element to another
b) to Modify the data
c) to process the data
d) to separate the signal hidden in the noise
Answer: a
Explanation: Data transmission is used to transmit data from one element to another. The data processing element is used to modify the data before display and separate data from noise.
10. Which elements among the following is used to modify the data before display?
a) Data presentation element
b) Data transmission element
c) Data processing element
d) Variable manipulation element
Answer: c
Explanation: Data processing element is used to modify the data before display. Variable manipulation element is used to manipulate the signal. Data transmission is used to transmit data from one element to another, Data presentation element communicate the information of a measured variable to a human observer for monitoring.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “ Control Systems”.
1. What are Dashpots?
a) It works as a damper which resists motion by viscous friction
b) Toothed parts which transfer power between two shafts
c) Used to transmit power between two parallel shafts
d) Convert the rotatory motion into translatory motion
Answer: a
Explanation: It works as a damper which resists motion by viscous force. In the other three options, toothed parts which transfer power between two shafts is done by the gear drive. The other functions mentioned are performed using spur and rack and pinion type of gears respectively.
2. Force applied by dashpot is proportional to the velocity of an object in ____
a) Same direction
b) Opposite direction
c) All directions
d) Upward and Downward direction
Answer: b
Explanation: Force provided by dashpot is proportional with the velocity of an object but opposite in direction.
3. Dashpot absorbs energy from an object.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Dashpot absorbs energy from the object like spring, and makes the object stable.
4. Which type of damper works on the principle of the magnetic field?
a) Linear dashpot
b) Rotary dashpot
c) Eddy current damper
d) Shock absorbers
Answer: c
Explanation: Eddy current damper works on the principle of the magnetic field. It provides a force on an object proportional to its velocity. Linear dashpot and Rotary dashpot work on the principle of torque and velocity.
5. In any pair of gear, the smaller one is called as the pinion and the larger one is called as ____
a) Gear immaterial
b) Spur Gear
c) Internal gear
d) Helical gear
Answer: a
Explanation: In any pair of gear the smaller one is called as pinion and the larger one is immaterial of which is driven by the other. Spur gear, helical gear and internal gear are the different types of gears.
6. When the gear is driven, it results in step down driven in which the output speed decreases and torque increases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: When a gear is driven, it results in step up driven in which the output speed increases and torque decreases. When the pinion is driven, it results in step down driven in which output speed decreases and torque increases.
7. In which type of gear teethes are parallel to the axis?
a) Spur Gears
b) Helical Gears
c) Rack and pinion
d) Internal Gears
Answer: a
Explanation: In spur gears teethes are parallel to the axis and used for transmitting power between two parallelshafts. In helical gears teethes are inclined with the axis. Rack and pinion and internal gears have different types of construction.
8. Which type of gear is used to convert rotary into translatory motion?
a) Spur gear
b) Rack and pinion
c) Helical gear
d) Internal gear
Answer:b
Explanation: Rack and pinion type of gear is used to convert rotary motion into translatory motion. In spur gears teethes are parallel to the axis and used for transmitting power between two parallel shafts. In helical gears teethes are inclined with the axis.
9. Bevel gears are used for ____
a) Transmitting power between intersecting shafts
b) Converting rotary into translatory motion
c) For high speed and high load applications
d) Used in high capacity reduction driver like cement mills
Answer: a
Explanation: Bevel gears are used for transmitting power between intersecting shafts. Rack and pinion type gears are used to convert rotary into translatory motion. For high load and high-speed applications, high capacity reduction driver like cement mills spur gears and double helical gears are used respectively.
10. The planet pinion carrier and shaft are used in which type of gear?
a) Rack and pinion
b) Internal Gears
c) Spur Gears
d) Helical Gears
Answer: b
Explanation: Internal gears consist of planet pinion carrier and shaft used in automobiles automatic transmission and step up driver of windmills.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Microprocessor Based Controllers”.
1. What is the sequence followed by the automatic washing machine?
a) Washing, soaking, rinsing and drying
b) Soaking, washing, rinsing and drying
c) Washing, soaking, drying and rinsing
d) Drying, soaking, rinsing and washing
Answer: b
Explanation: Soaking, washing, rinsing and drying are the events of the washing machine. According to this, the controller actions are decided. In the other options the sequence is changed and therefore these are not the accurate choices.
2. The chemical sensor in the washing machine is used ____
a) To count the quantity of detergent
b) To measure the amount of water
c) To measure the pH value of water
d) For Drying operations
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemical sensor is used to measure the pH value of water in the drum and compare to the water supply. The amount of water, pH value and detergent are all sensed by the sensor. Drying operations are performed through another hardware in the device.
3. The amount of water, pH value and detergent are input to ____
a) Microprocessor
b) Microcontroller
c) Valve
d) Pump
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of water, pH value and detergent are all sensed by the sensor and sensed qualities are input to the microcontroller. Further the signals are sent from the microcontroller to device so that the user get to know if the work is done.
4. What is used to calculate the distance of the object and according to that sets the lens of the camera?
a) Range processor
b) Microprocessor
c) Shutter
d) Switch
Answer: a
Explanation: Range sensor is used to calculate the distance of the object and according to that it sets the lens of the camera. The microprocessor sends the signal to the motor for adjusting the lens of the camera.
5. A CD is made of plastic and a thick layer of aluminium.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The CD is made of plastic and a thick layer of aluminium. Between plastic and aluminium layers is a spiral track, 0.5 microns wide with the repetitions of the track 1.6 microns apart radially.
6. The microprocessor is used in drive motor of CD for controlling the speed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The microprocessor is used to control the speed of the drive motor based on the position of the tracking mechanism. Depending on the complexity of the CD player, sometimes music data is temporarily stored in RAM chip, for anti-skip functions.
7. What is the precise rate at which the drive motor rotates the CD?
a) 800 to 100 rpm
b) 500 to 200 rpm
c) 1000 to 600 rpm
d) 100 to 200 rpm
Answer: b
Explanation: The drive motor rotates the CD at a precise rate, somewhere between 500 to 200 rpm. The other options are not the accurate or precise rate of rotation and therefore these are not the right choices.
8. What are the applications of PLC in mechatronics?
a) Timing, counting, logic, arithmetic and sequencing
b) Managing, commanding and directing
c) Storing data
d) Processing
Answer: a
Explanation: Timing, counting, logic, arithmetic and sequencing are the applications of PLC. Managing and commanding are done through the controller, Memory stores the data and Processor is used for processing.
9. What is the main of DAS ?
a) Storing data
b) It converts analog to digital data
c) It converts digital to analog data
d) Processes the data
Answer: b
Explanation: DAS is used basically to convert analog to digital quantities, measures several physical quantities and converts them into electrical form. It can measure voltage, current, sound or pressure and various other physical quantities.
10. Reading mechanism is available in _______
a) CD
b) Washing machine
c) Digital camera
d) Camcorders
Answer: a
Explanation: CD consists of a reading mechanism part. A laser and a laser diode read when it can see the laser light. In other options, washing machine, Digital camera and camcorders does not require reading mechanism and they are not available.
This set of Mechatronics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Real Times Mechatronics System”.
1. In the mechatronics design process, what is the role of modelling?
a) Making understandable and behavioural models of physical phenomena
b) Numerical strategies for solving models
c) Information for maintaining project data
d) To supply efficient high-level source code
Answer: a
Explanation: Modelling is a process of making understandable and behavioural models of physical phenomena. Numerical strategies for solving models containing differential and non-linear equations is done through simulation.
2. Numerical strategies for affected improvement and performance functions supported model parameters and signals is called as ____
a) simulation
b) design
c) modelling
d) project management
Answer: b
Explanation: Design process in the mechatronics design process is Numerical strategies for affected improvement and performance functions supported model parameters and signals. Modeling is a process of making understandable and behavioural models of physical phenomena. Numerical strategies for solving the model and non-linear equations is done through simulation.
3. Simulation provides numerical strategies for solving models containing differential, discrete, hybrid, partial and implicit non-linear equations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Simulation provides numerical strategies for solving models containing differential, discrete, hybrid, partial and implicit non-linear equations. It should have a lock for real-time processing and be capable of executing quicker than real time.
4. The function of the code generator is ____
a) project management
b) simulation
c) numerical strategies for solving models
d) to supply efficient high-level source code
Answer: d
Explanation: Function of the code generator is to supply efficient high-level source code from the block diagram or visual modelling interface. Project management is done through a project manager. The design process in the mechatronics design process is Numerical strategies for affected improvement and performance functions supported model parameters and signals. Simulation is not done through the code generator.
5. Hardware approach in integrated design approach in mechatronics is ____
a) advanced control functions
b) bringing together sensors, actuators and computers in one system
c) to provide built-in intelligence
d) to provide a coherent framework of component interactions
Answer: b
Explanation: Hardware integration means designing the mechatronics system as an overall system and bring together the sensors, actuators and computers into one system. Software integration is based on advanced control functions.
6. In the integrated design approach, a coherent framework is provided through control systems.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechatronics uses the control system to provide a coherent framework of component interactions for system analysis. Software integration is based on advanced control functions. Hardware integration brings together the sensors, actuators and computers into one system.
7. The built-in intelligence provided through ____
a) Advanced control functions
b) Real-time programming
c) Control systems
d) Integrated design approach
Answer: b
Explanation: An important characteristic of a mechatronics system is built in intelligence provided through real-time programming integrated with the design process.
8. In mechatronics system design phase, prototyping phase consists of ____
a) hardware in loop simulation and design optimization
b) deployment of software
c) finding the mathematical model
d) selecting Sensors and Actuators
Answer: a
Explanation: Prototyping phase consists of hardware in loop simulation and design optimization. The deployment of the software is done in the Deployment phase of mechatronics system design process.
9. How is the integration of mechatronics system possible?
a) By use of control systems
b) By combining hardware and software
c) By providing built-in intelligence
d) By providing efficient high-level source code
Answer: b
Explanation: Integration of a mechatronics system is possible through combining hardware and software. Hardware integration means designing the mechatronics system as an overall system and bring together the sensors, actuators and computers into one system. Software integration is based on advanced control functions.
10. The function of project management is ____
a) providing information for maintaining data and Sub models
b) deployment of software
c) real-time programming
d) integrated design approach
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of project management is providing information for maintaining data and sub models for ultimate reprocess. The deployment of the software is done in the Deployment phase of mechatronics system design process. The built-in intelligence is provided through real-time programming integrated with the design process.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “CNC Machines”.
1. What is the full form of CNC?
a) Computer numerical control
b) Computer number control
c) Computer network control
d) Computer numbers count
Answer: a
Explanation: Computer numerical control is the full form of CNC. If we provide software-based numerical control then it is called as computer numerical control. The other three options are not the perfect choice for the full form of CNC.
2. What does CNC machine use to control motion and speed?
a) Numerical
b) Programs, as well as computer keyboard, Graphical user interface
c) Feedback system
d) GUI
Answer: b
Explanation: CNC machine uses the program to control motion and speed. The feedback system is used to record data from the sensor and compare it with input data. The graphical user interface provides a facility to understand the position of the tool according to the input program.
3. The function of the feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with output data.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. If there is an error found in the system, then it is controlled by sending new signals towards the driver.
4. What is the function of the GUI?
a) To control motion and speed
b) Converts program into the action of the driver
c) To record the data from the sensor
d) To understand the position of the tool according to the input program
Answer: d
Explanation: To understand the position of the tool according to the input program is the function of GUI. CNC programs are used to control motion and speed. Machine control unit converts the program into the action of the driver. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data.
5. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is ____
a) feedback system
b) input device
c) program
d) driving system
Answer: b
Explanation: The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input device. Magnetic tape, as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input device. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. CNC machine uses the program to control motion and speed.
6. Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. It reads the code provided and decodes the instruction.
7. What is the function of the driving system in CNC?
a) Auxiliary control functions such as coolant
b) Speed and position control
c) Consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
d) To understand the position of the tool according to the input program
Answer: c
Explanation: Driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw. These are used to actuate the driving motors. Speed and position control is provided by machine tools. To understand the position of the tool according to the input program is the function of GUI.
8. Sensors used in measurement systems are ____
a) speed and position sensor
b) consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
c) numerical control sensors
d) measurement sensors
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors used in measurement systems are speed and position sensors. The driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw. Numerical control sensors and Measurement sensors are not used in CNC devices.
9. Speed and Position in CNC can be controlled using _____
a) slide table and spindle
b) machine code unit
c) feedback system
d) graphic user interface
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed and position are controlled by using a sliding table and a spindle. X and Y directions are controlled by the machine table. The z-direction is controlled by spindle speed control. In the other options, The Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. To understand the position of the tool according to the input program, is the function of Graphic user interface.
10. In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop are a part of ____
a) speed and position sensor
b) feedback system
c) machine control unit
d) input device
Answer: c
Explanation: In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop are a part of the Machine control unit. Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. Speed and position are controlled by using a sliding table and a spindle. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input device. Magnetic tape, as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input device.
This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “Flexible Manufacturing System”.
1. Who developed FMS ?
a) Jerome H. Lemelson
b) Charles Wheatstone
c) Charles manes
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
Answer: a
Explanation: Jerome H. Lemelson developed FMS . He was an American industrial engineer who brought in the concept of flexible manufacturing system. He filed many patents in the early 1950’s.
2. When did Jerome H. Lemelson set up his factory based on FMS ?
a) Early 1950’s
b) Early 1940’s
c) Late 1940’s
d) Late 1960’s
Answer: d
Explanation: Jerome H. Lemelson set up his factory based on FMS in the late 1960’s. His initial factories in this decade was set up in U.S and Europe. This concept slowly started to gain profit in 1970’s.
3. What is done in make-to-order production?
a) Production is ordered by the owner
b) Regular production
c) Production stops due to less order
d) Production is done according to customer requirements
Answer: d
Explanation: Production is done according to customer requirements. In this process the customers can customize an existing product of the company according to their needs. He can customize it by paying extra sum of money or through any other means demanded as per the company.
4. Which is a false statement on FMS ?
a) Accuracy in the final goods produced is high
b) The cost of production is less
c) Quality and quantity of produced goods can be changed easily
d) The cost of initial setup is less due to less labour cost
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of initial setup is less due to less labour cost is a false statement on FMS . The labour cost may be less but the cost of setup and its installation is high compared to the traditional ones.
5. Flexible manufacturing system lowers the company’s production cost.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexible manufacturing system lowers the company’s production cost. It can easily adapt to change in number of units produced, quality of units produced and time taken for the final product to be ready for manufactured, thus decrease the overall cost.
6. Anyone can operate FMS .
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Anyone cannot operate FMS . Although it reduces the labour cost, but for these systems to function efficiently, skilled and specially trained individuals are required.
7. What was the original design of Jerome H. Lemelson which he patented for FMS ?
a) Robot based system
b) Conveyer
c) Motor based pulley
d) Shredder
Answer:a
Explanation: Robot based system was the original design of Jerome H. Lemelson which he patented for FMS . This robot based system can do multiple works such as welding, conveying, inspecting manufactured goods etc.
8. Which is not a property of FMS ?
a) High accuracy
b) Less production cost
c) Less initial cost
d) Flexibility in production
Answer: c
Explanation: Less initial cost is not a property of FMS . In these type of systems, the upfront cost is high. The cost of System, its installation cost and its maintenance is higher compared to that of the traditional ones.
9. What happens to labour workforce when FMS concept is used?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Gradually increases with time
Answer: b
Explanation: The labour workforce decreases when FMS concept is used. In this concept most of the work is done using the machines, only few skilled labours are specifically trained to operate these machines. This leads to overall decrease in labour work force.
10. Which development board uses energia IDE for its programming?
a) MSP430G2ET Launchpad
b) Arduino UNO
c) Arduino nano
d) NodeMCU
Answer: a
Explanation: MSP430G2ET Launchpad is a development board that uses energia IDE for its programming. Arduino UNO, Arduino nano and NodeMCU uses Arduino IDE .
11. Which work cannot be done by Jerome H. Lemelson’s first robot based system?
a) Manufacturing product
b) Welding
c) Inspecting the product
d) Convey the product
Answer: a
Explanation: Manufacturing of product cannot be done by Jerome H. Lemelson’s first robot based system. It can convey the product, inspect it or can even weld two metals. This was the first machine model that was used in industrial sector.
12. FMS consist of a single machine that controls everything.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: FMS does not consist of a single machine that controls everything. It is a cluster of machines that work together to manufacture a product. These machines together form up a system called FMS .
13. FMS is not suitable if production quantity is less.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: FMS is not suitable if production quantity is less. FMS is best suited if the production has to be done for a long time and huge amount of goods has to be manufactured.
14. Which does SMC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Single machine control
b) Singular machine control
c) Slot machine cell
d) Single machine cell
Answer: d
Explanation: SMC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Single machine cell. It has one CNC based machine hub that controls all other units. It is also combined with a storage system for unattended operation.
Answer: b
Explanation: The expansion cost of FMS is high. The initial and expansion cost of FMS is high because the advanced machines and systems used in it are costlier than the traditional ones.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Computer Integrated Manufacturing”.
1. Which does CNC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Computer Numb control
b) Computer Number control
c) Computer Numerical control
d) Computerised Numerical controller
Answer: c
Explanation: CNC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Computer Numerical control. It can control machines such as milling machine, lathe, welding machine etc by taking digital data as its input which is fed into it by the operator.
2. Which is a false statement on CIM ?
a) Quality of the final goods produced is better
b) The cost of production is less
c) Quantity of produced goods can be changed easily
d) The cost of initial setup is less
Answer: d
Explanation: “The cost of initial setup is less” is a false statement on CIM . The labour cost may be less but the cost of setup and its installation is high compared to the traditional ones, because the setup consists of costly and advanced machines.
3. When did the ‘digital manufacturing’ concept became prominent?
a) Early 1950’s
b) Early 1970’s
c) Late 1940’s
d) Late 1960’s
Answer: b
Explanation: The concept of ‘digital manufacturing’ became prominent in the early 1970’s. It became famous after the release of the book “Computer Integrated Manufacturing” written by Dr. Joseph harrington.
4. What is the full form of CAD?
a) Computer aided Design
b) Computer arts Design
c) Computer arts Designing
d) Computer assisted Design
Answer: a
Explanation: CAD stands for Computer aided Design. CAD software is used to digitally design a model. They can create 3-Dimensional model of any desired object. Software such as “Ansys” can even determine stress or strain falling on an object.
5. CIM system is same as “lights-out factory”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: CIM system is not same as “lights-out factory”. In “lights-out factory” there is no requirement of a single human being. Everything is done by the robots. But this is not so in the CIM . Here skilled technicians are needed for the manufacturing.
6. “Lights-out factory” is a factory where there is no need any kind of light source.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: “Lights-out factory” is a factory where there is no need any kind of light source. It is also known as “Dark factory”. Every work inside the factory is automated and is carried out by programmed robots.
7. Which does DNC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Direct Numb control
b) Direct Number control
c) Direct Numerical control
d) Directed Numerical controller
Answer: c
Explanation: DNC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Direct Numerical control. It is also called as distributed numerical control. In this machines are controlled by a programmed computer with the help of direct connections.
8. Which does PLC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Programmed Logic Controller
b) Programmable Logic Controller
c) Programmed Logic Control
d) Programmable Low-key Controller
Answer: b
Explanation: PLC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Programmable Logic Controller. It is used in the control of manufacturing process. It can control the assembly lines, carrier robots etc. It provides ease in programming and in the diagnosis of any fault.
9. What is the full form of CAPP?
a) Computer aided processed plans
b) Computer arts process planning
c) Computer aided process planning
d) Computer assisted process planning
Answer: c
Explanation: CAPP stands for Computer aided process planning. It is the use of computer aided technology to plan or design a product for manufacturing. This process is widely used in CIM for the planning purpose.
10. Which is an example of PLC ?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SR3B261BD
d) BMP180
Answer: c
Explanation: SR3B261BD is an example of PLC developed by SCHNEIDER Electric. BMP180 is a pressure sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Which software cannot be used for 3D modelling and CAD ?
a) Creo
b) Ansys
c) Blender
d) Adobe premium pro
Answer: d
Explanation: Adobe premium pro software cannot be used for 3D modelling and CAD . Creo, Ansys and Blender all three are 3D modeling app which can also be used for CAD .
12. CIM implies that there should be at least two computers between which information is interchanged.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: CIM implies that there should be at least two computers between which information is interchanged. There can be more than two systems which works together and exchange information.
13. Who coined the term CAE ?
a) Jerome H. Lemelson
b) Jason Lemon
c) Charles manes
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
Answer: a
Explanation: Jason Lemon first coined the term CAE . He was the founder of SDRC . It was founded in the year 1967.
14. Stress analysis can be performed using “ansys” CAD software.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress analysis can be performed using “ansys” CAD software. Ansys is a 3D modelling CAD software through which we can easily figure out the stress in any part of the object.
Answer: c
Explanation: The first attempt of lights-out manufacturing made in the year 1784. It was carried out by “Oliver Hans”. He was the one who created the world’s first continuous production line in the year 1784.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Humanoid Robot”.
1. Which organization has developed the humanoid robot “Sophia”?
a) Google
b) Amazon
c) Texas Instruments
d) Hanson Robotics
Answer: d
Explanation: The humanoid robot “Sophia” has been developed by “Hanson Robotics” at Hong Kong. Sophia is social humanoid robot that can mimic more than 60 human expressions.
2. When was first humanoid robot created?
a) 1945
b) 1930
c) 1927
d) 1975
Answer: c
Explanation: The first humanoid robot was claimed to be created in the year 1927. It was manufactured by Westinghouse Electric and Manufacturing Co. and was named as Herbert Televox.
3. Which type of sensors are used for tracking the humanoid’s body and joints movement, its orientation, position and speed?
a) mpu6050
b) ECG monitoring sensor
c) Proprioceptive
d) Exteroceptive
Answer: c
Explanation: Proprioceptive sensors are used for tracking the humanoid’s body and joints movement, its orientation, position and speed. They function the same as like our muscle or limb work to provide orientation and movement to our body.
4. The motors used in humanoid robots are called as ______
a) Actuators
b) B-O motors
c) Orientation motors
d) Axis motors
Answer: a
Explanation: The motors used in humanoid robot are called as Actuators. They help the humanoid bots to mimic the motion like that of an actual human being. B-O motors are not so accurate to provide the precession in movement which is needed.
5. Humanoid robot is same as chatbots.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The humanoid robot and the chatbots are not the same. The chatbots only respond verbally or textually but the humanoid robots have to show interaction through expressions, movements, verbally and other humanly behaviours.
6. When was the humanoid robot “Sophia” activated?
a) February 14, 2012
b) March 16, 2016
c) February 14, 2016
d) March 16, 2012
Answer: c
Explanation: The humanoid robot “Sophia” was first activated on February 14 in the year 2016 with the capabilities of Facial Recognition, Artificial Intelligence, visual data processing. She could interact and could reply through speech. Scientists are still working on it to make advancements.
7. ZMP in terms of humanoid robotics stands for ____
a) Zero Moment Point
b) Zero Mean Point
c) Zenith Moment Point
d) Zenith Measurement Point
Answer: a
Explanation: ZMP stands for Zero Moment Point. It’s basically a concept that is associated to the movement of the legs of a robot. It’s a crucial concept for the biped robots as they have only two contact points . Others do not relate to any robotic contexts.
8. What is the use of proximity sensor?
a) It’s used for sensing humidity
b) It’s used for sensing heat
c) It’s used for measuring distance
d) It’s used for sensing the presence of nearby objects
Answer: d
Explanation: Proximity sensors can detect the presence of the nearby objects without making any physical contact with it. They are also used in mobile phones which is used to turn off the mobile screen when it’s placed near the ear.
9. What is the name of the famous humanoid robot developed by the company “Honda”?
a) Eskimo
b) Ansino
c) Asimo
d) Sophia
Answer: c
Explanation: Asimo was developed by Honda back in 2000 and became one of the most popular Humanoid robot of the decade. He has the ability to interact, run, play football and can mimic many different human actions. Scientists are still working on it to increase its capabilities.
Answer: d
Explanation: The robot was first revealed in the year 2013 by Boston Dynamics. This bot was made aiming to get an upper hand at the rescue missions as these bots can possess much more capabilities required at the rescue areas, than a normal human being.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Advanced Vehicle Control System”.
1. When was first practical power steering invented?
a) 1820
b) 1760
c)1920
d) 1926
Answer: d
Explanation: The first practical power steering invented in the year 1926. The need of power steering emerged greatly during the time war, when there was need of driving heavy military vehicles which needed a lot of force while steering it with normal steering systems.
2. What is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of 20Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4?
a) 4Newton
b) 8Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
Answer: b
Explanation: 8Newton is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of 20Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4.
Given,
Normal force=20Newton
Coefficient of friction=0.4
Frictional force=Normal force*Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=20*0.4=8Newton
Explanation: Active transducers do not require and additional power source for converting the energy from one form to another as they work on the principle of energy conversion. One such example of active transducer is thermocouple.
3. What is the full form of EHPS with respect to vehicle dynamics?
a) Electric-hydro power steering
b) Electro-hydraulic power steering
c) Electro-hydraulic pulse steering
d) Electro-hydraulic power system
Answer: b
Explanation: EHPS with respect to vehicle dynamics stands for Electro-hydraulic power steering. It uses hydraulic systems for assisting the driver of the vehicle. It acts as a power steering and helps the driver to easily turn the vehicle in the desired way.
4. When was first calliper-type disc brakes patented?
a) 1902
b) 1800
c) 1945
d) 1850
Answer: a
Explanation: The first calliper-type disc brakes patented in the year 1902. It was patented by Frederick William Lanchester in his birmingham factory. It was first tested on the lanchester cars.
5. What is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of 10Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4?
a) 4Newton
b) 8Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
Answer: a
Explanation:Given,
Normal force = 10Newton
Coefficient of friction = 0.4
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force = 10*0.4 = 4Newton
6. What is the frictional force in a braking system of a truck if the drum brake pads offer a normal force of 30Newton and the coefficient of friction at the area of contact is 0.5?
a) 4Newton
b) 7.5Newton
c) 15Newton
d) 40Newton
Answer: c
Explanation: Given,
Normal force=30Newton
Coefficient of friction at the area of contact=0.5
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=30*0.5=15Newton.
7. What is the full form of MDPS with respect to vehicle dynamics?
a) Motor driven pulse steering
b) Motor driven power steering
c) Multi driving power steering
d) Motor driven power system
Answer: b
Explanation: MDPS with respect to vehicle dynamics stands for Motor driven power steering. It uses an electric motor for assisting the driver of the vehicle. It acts as a power steering and helps the driver to easily turn the vehicle in the desired way.
8. Volvo XC90 has automatic braking system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Volvo XC90 has automatic braking system. It contains systems that detects the presence of vehicles or objects and apply brakes when they come too close to the car and can be threat.
9. Which is not a self driving car?
a) Tesla Model S
b) NEXT TWO
c) Renault duster
d) Nissan LEAF
Answer: c
Explanation: Renault duster is not a self driving car. Tesla Model S is self driving car made by the company Tesla. NEXT TWO is self driving car made by the company Renault. Nissan LEAF is self driving car made by the company Nissan.
10. What is the frictional force in a braking system of a car if the disc brake pads offer a normal force of 15Newton and the coefficient of friction at the area of contact is 0.5?
a) 4Newton
b) 7.5Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
Answer: b
Explanation: Given,
Normal force=15Newton
Coefficient of friction = 0.5
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=15*0.5=7.5Newton
11. Which is the first autopilot ship?
a) Tesla Model S
b) NEXT TWO
c) J.A Moffet
d) Nissan LEAF
Answer: c
Explanation: J.A Moffet was the first autopilot ship. It was a standard oil tanker that became the first ship to use auto pilot in 1920’s. Autopilot systems are fully automatic systems that can constantly control vehicles trajectory without manual guidance.
12. When was first autopilot system developed?
a) 1911
b) 1912
c) 1932
d) 1931
Answer: b
Explanation: The first autopilot system was developed in the year 1912 by Lawrence Sperry. It was just 9 years after wright brothers developed their airplane Kitty Hawk. Sperry’s invention was also named as “Gyroscopic automatic pilot”.
13. Which is the first helicopter with autopilot?
a) Piasecki HUP Retriever
b) NEXT TWO
c) J.A Moffet
d) Nissan LEAF
Answer: a
Explanation: Piasecki HUP Retriever is the first helicopter with autopilot. It was developed by Piasecki Helicopter Corporation of Morton, Pennsylvania. It has a single radial engine with twin overlapping tandem rotor.
14. Who developed the first autopilot system?
a) Lawrence Sperry
b) Joseph Henry
c) Norman Bel Geddes
d) Walther Bothe
Answer: a
Explanation: Lawrence Sperry was an American inventor who developed the first autopilot system. Sperry’s invention was also named as “Gyroscopic automatic pilot”. This system automatically balanced the plane.
15. When was the first steering wheel made?
a) 1911
b) 1894
c) 1832
d) 1831
Answer: b
Explanation: The first steering wheel was made in the year 1894. It is the earliest trace of the presence of steering wheels which was used by Alfred Vachero in his 4 horse powered custom car to participate in Paris-Rouen race.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Advantages and Disadvantages”.
1. Which among the following is a false statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is high
b) Does not require highly skilled labours for operating it
c) More output in less time
d) It provides flexibility in production
Answer: b
Explanation: False statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it does not require highly skilled labours for operating it. It does require highly skilled and trained labours for operating the manufacturing machines.
2. Which among the following is a correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is low
b) Cheaper maintenance
c) More output in less time
d) Any individual can operate these systems
Answer: c
Explanation: Correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it is gives more output in less time compared to the primitive techniques. Machines do not require rest and are built in such a way that it can provide the same accuracy on any other day like it gave on the first day.
3. How many principle axes do a Cartesian robot has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: A Cartesian robot has 3 principle axes. These are industrial robots that can translate in all X, Y and Z axis. They have three arms that are placed at right angle to each other. A 3D printer is best example of Cartesian robot.
4. What does SCARA stand for in terms of industrial mechatronic robots?
a) Selectively Compliance Assembled Robot Arm
b) Selective Complicated Assembly Robot Arm
c) Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm
d) Static Complicated Assembly Robot Arm
Answer: c
Explanation: SCARA stand for Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm in terms of industrial mechatronic robots. They are industrial robots that are mainly used in industries for assembling parts and accessories.
5. Which axis of SCARA robot is rigid and static?
a) X axis
b) Y axis
c) Z axis
d) No axis
Answer: c
Explanation: The Z-axis of SCARA robot is rigid and static. It can translate easily on X axis and Y axis. It has a rotating end that can perform rotational motion on vertical axis.
6. Primitive methods should be preferred over mechatronic systems for short term manufacturing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Primitive methods should be preferred over mechatronic systems for short term manufacturing. This is so because primitive methods are cheaper and easy to apply, whereas mechatronic systems are costlier and can be difficult to install and maintain in short run.
7. Which mechatronic system is also called as Gantry robot?
a) Cartesian Robot
b) Dual Arm Robots
c) SCARArobot
d) 6 axis robots
Answer: a
Explanation: Cartesian Robots are also called as Gantry robots. These robots can perform lineal motion on the entire 3 perpendicular axes. These Robots are usually used for carrying loads, welding, 3D printing etc.
8. How many degrees of freedom do an industrial redundant arm has?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
Answer: c
Explanation: An industrial redundant arm has 7 degree of freedom. These industrial arms resemble the human arms and are capable performing every action that a human arm can do. These arms are mainly used in industries for assembling parts and accessories.
9. How many degrees of freedom do an industrial delta robot has?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
Answer: a
Explanation: An industrial delta arm has 3 degree of freedom. These robots have a dome shaped structure which constitutes of 3 arms joined with universal joints. These arms are mainly used in industries for quick pickup and placing of objects.
10. Who invented delta robot?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Norman Bel Geddes
d) ReymondClavel
Answer: d
Explanation: Delta robot was invented by ReymondClavel in the early 1980’s. These robots have a dome shaped structure which constitutes of 3 arms joined with universal joints. These arms are mainly used in industries for quick pickup and placing of objects.
11. Who invented first SCARA robot?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Hiroshi Makino
d) Walther Bothe
Answer: c
Explanation: Professor Hiroshi Makino invented first SCARA robot . This revolutionary prototype was created in the year 1978 at Yamanashi University in Japan.
12. How many degrees of freedom do an industrial SCARA has?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 9
Answer: c
Explanation: An industrial SCARA has 4 degree of freedom. It can translate easily on X axis and Y axis. It has a rotating end that can perform rotational motion on vertical axis.
13. Sensors and transducers are subsystem of mechatronics.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors and transducers are subsystem of mechatronics. Sensors are transducers are used to collect information from the environment and feed it into computers or microcontrollers that analyses the data and operates accordingly.
14. Which among the following is a correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is low
b) Cheaper maintenance
c) It is suitable for short term business
d) It provides flexibility in redesigning and manufacturing the products
Answer: d
Explanation: Correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it provides flexibility in redesigning and manufacturing the products. Mechatronic systems can be easily modified to increase or decrease the quality as well as the quantity of products produced.
15. Which among the following is a false statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is high
b) Requires highly skilled labours for operating it
c) More output in less time
d) Easy to identify faults and repair it
Answer: d
Explanation: False statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it is “Easy to identify faults and repair it”. It is rather difficult to identify the fault and repair manufacturing systems. It requires skilled engineers to repair them.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Types of Transducers”.
1. What are transducers?
a) They convert power from one form to another
b) They convert work from one form to another
c) They convert work to power
d) They convert energy from one form to another
Answer: d
Explanation: Transducer are devices that convert energy from one form to another. This energy can be either mechanical energy, light energy, heat energy or any other forms of energy.
2. Active transducer do not require any type of additional power source for an operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Active transducers do not require any additional power source for converting the energy from one form to another as they work on the principle of energy conversion. One such example of active transducer is thermocouple.
3. What type of energy conversion does a piezoelectric transducer perform?
a) It converts mechanical energy to sound energy
b) It converts sound energy to mechanical energy
c) It converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) It converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
Answer: c
Explanation: A piezoelectric transducer converts mechanical energy to electrical energy. They are generally used to detect a knock or any impulsive force. They are also used in electronic drum pads to detect the impulse provided by the drumsticks.
4. Pirani Gauge is an example of which type of transducer?
a) Pressure transducer
b) Temperature transducer
c) Light transducer
d) Mechanical transducer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pirani Gauge is a pressure transducer. It’s a thermal conductivity gauge used to detect pressure in vacuum conditions. It was named after a German physicist “Marcello Stefano Pirani” who invented it in 1906.
5. The IC LM35 is used as which type of sensor?
a) Pressure sensor
b) Temperature sensor
c) Light sensor
d) Mechanical sensor
Answer: b
Explanation: The LM35 IC manufactured by Texas Instruments is used as a temperature sensor. The output voltage generated by this IC is linearly proportional to the temperature in Centigrade. The output voltage is directly proportional to the temperature.
6. What is the range of frequency of the waves produced by the Ultrasonic transducer?
a) 20 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz
b) 1 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz
c) 40 Kilohertz to several Megahertz
d) less than 20 Kilohertz
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic transducers produce frequency ranging from 20 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz. Ultrasounds have a wide range of application in many fields, but majorly they are used for measuring the distance of objects.
7. What is the full form of LVDT with respect to displacement transducer?
a) Linear variable differential temperature
b) Linear variable differential transformer
c) Liquid visible differential transformer
d) Liquified visible differential transformer
Answer: b
Explanation: LVDT stands for Linear variable differential transformer. It is a displacement transducer that converts rectilinear motion to electric signals. They are used widely due to their robustness.
8. What is the effect on properties of LDR when light falls on it?
a) Its resistance remains same
b) Its resistance changes
c) Its capacitance changes
d) Its inductance changes
Answer: b
Explanation: When light falls on LDR its resistance changes. It is inversely proportional to the intensity of light. When light falls on LDR, the resistance decreases and more current starts to flow through it. It is used to measure the intensity of light.
9. What is measured by a hall effect transducer?
a) Electric flux
b) Electric Field
c) Magnetic field
d) Temperature
Answer: c
Explanation: Hall effect transducers or Hall effect sensor is used for measuring the magnitude of the magnetic field. The output voltage produced by the sensor is directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field passing through it.
Answer: c
Explanation: The chemical sensors detect the chemicals in the vapour form. Most of the chemical sensor are in the form of gas sensors. These sensors are widely used in industries to detect any gas leakage or for automatic fire alarms.
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This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Transducers – Characteristic Parameters”.
1. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of an LDR ?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to light intensity graph of an LDR has a decreasing nature. As the intensity of the light falling on the LDR increases, the value of its resistance decreases.
2. What is the absolute error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 5.1 cm but the actual value is 5 cm?
a) 1.02
b) 0.1
c) 0.01
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation:Given: Actual Value=5cm
Measured Value=5.1cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=5.1cm-5cm=>0.1cm
3. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.1 cm but the actual value is 3 cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.1
c) 0.033
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=3cm
Measured Value=3.1cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=3.1cm-3cm => 0.1cm
Relative error=Absolute error/Actual value
Relative error=0.1/3=>0.033
4. What is the sensitivity of a sensor if the difference between two alternative output observations is 0.6 and difference between two alternative input observations is 0.2?
a) 3
b) 0.6
c) 0.2
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Change in output=0.6
Change in input=0.2
Sensitivity=Change in output/Change in input
Sensitivity=0.6/0.2=>3
5. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of aB57211P0100M301 thyristor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to temperature graph of a B57211P0100M301 thermistor has a decreasing nature. When the temperature of the B57211P0100M301 increases, then the value of its resistance decreases. And vice versa happens when temperature decreases.
6. The intensity of light is inversely proportional to the resistance of a photo resistor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of light is inversely proportional to the resistance of a photo resistor. When the intensity of light falling on the photo resistor increases its resistance decreases. The resistance to light intensity graph of a photo resistor has a decreasing nature.
7. Transformer is a type of transducer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Transformer is not a type of transducer. Transducers are devices that can convert one form of energy to some different form, whereas a transformer steps up or steps down voltage or current. It does not changes the form of energy
8. The resistance of a thermistor is directly proportional to its temperature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance of a thermistor is inversely proportional to its temperature. When the temperature of the thermistor increases, then the value of its resistance decreases. And vice versa happens when temperature decreases.
9. What is the sensitivity of a sensor if the difference between two alternative output observations is 0.4 and difference between two alternative input observations is 0.2?
a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.2
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Change in output=0.4
Change in input=0.2
Sensitivity=Change in output/Change in input
Sensitivity=0.4/0.2=>2
10. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an infrared sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 4cm but the actual value is 3.8cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.0526
c) 0.033
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=3.8cm
Measured Value=4cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=4cm-3.8cm=>0.2cm
Relative error=Absolute error/Actual value
Relative error=0.2/3.8cm=>0.0526
11. All sensors are transducers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: All sensors are transducers. Transducers are devices that can convert one form of energy to some different form; when a sensor senses an object it converts it into machine readable electrical signals therefore it’s a transducer. But all transducers are not sensors.
12. What is the nature of resistance to temperature graph of a thermistor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Increases and then decreases
d) Constant
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to temperature graph of a thermistor has a decreasing nature. When the temperature of the Thermistor increases, then the value of its resistance decreases. And vice versa happens when temperature decreases.
13. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.3 cm but the actual value is 2.1cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.2
c) 0.0869
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=2.3cm
Measured Value=2.1cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=2.3cm-2.1cm=>0.2cm
Relative error=Absolute error/Actual value
Relative error=0.2/2.3=>0.0869
14. What is the absolute error of an observation taken by an Infrared sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.2 cm but the actual value is 2.9cm?
a) 1.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.03
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=2.9 cm
Measured Value=3.2cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=3.2cm-2.9cm=>0.3cm
15. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of a Photo resistor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to light intensity graph of a photo resistor has a decreasing nature. When the intensity of the light falling on the photo resistor increases, then the value of its resistance decreases.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Static Characteristics”.
1. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.12cm but the actual value is 2cm?
a) 12%
b) 10%
c) 6%
d) 1%
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=2cm
Measured Value=2.12cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=2.12cm-2cm=>0.12cm
Relative error=*100
Relative error=6%
2. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a distance measuring sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 7.19cm but the actual distance is 7.02cm?
a) 13:719
b) 17:619
c) 17:702
d) 13:619
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=7.02cm
Measured Value=7.19cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=7.19cm-7.02cm=0.17cm
Relative accuracy=
Relative accuracy==>17:702
3. What is the mean value of a distance observation set taken by a distance measurement sensor?
Observations={2,2.13,2.1,1.9}
a) 2.0325
b) 2.2
c) 2.125
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Observation set={2,2.13,2.1,1.9}
Mean=Sum of observations/Total number of observations
Mean=/4
Mean=2.0325
4. Static characteristic of a sensor cannot be found using calibration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Static characteristic of a sensor can be found using calibration. Calibration refers to a comparison between a known or standard measurement to the unknown measurement taken by the tool which has to be calibrated.
5. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a IR sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 1.26 cm but the actual distance is 1cm?
a) 13:409
b) 13:50
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=1cm
Measured Value=1.26cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=1.26cm-1cm=>0.26cm
Relative accuracy=
Relative accuracy==>13:50
6. Static characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s that vary very slowly with time.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Static characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s that vary very slowly with time. Dynamic characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s that vary rapidly with time.
7. Accuracy and precession are same for a sensor’s observation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Accuracy and precession are not same for a sensor’s observation. Accuracy is the observation closest to the true value whereas precession is the closeness of a observation among the predefined sets of observations.
8. Hysteresis error of any sensor has maximum difference between the observed value and actual value.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis error of any sensor has maximum difference between the observed value and actual value. Inside the specified range of the sensor, it is the maximum deviated observation from the actual observation.
9. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a IR sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 4.16cm but the actual distance is 4.09cm?
a) 7:409
b) 13:603
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=4.09cm
Measured Value=4.16cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=4.16cm-4.09cm=>0.07cm
Relative accuracy=
Relative accuracy==>7:409
10. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by a distance measuring sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.32cm but the actual value is 2cm?
a) 12%
b) 7.09%
c) 6%
d) 16%
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=2cm
Measured Value=2.32cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=2.32cm-2cm=>0.32cm
Relative error=*100
Relative error=16%
11. What is the average value of a distance observation set taken by a ultrasonic sensor?
Observations={5,5.413,5.41,4.97}
a) 5.0325
b) 5.198
c) 5.125
d) 5.07325
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Observation set={5,5.413,5.41,4.97}
Mean=Sum of observations/Total number of observations
Mean=/4
Mean=5.198
12. Static characteristics are related to the steady state response of an instrument.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Static characteristics are related to the steady state response of an instrument. Steady state response of sensor is the relationship between input and output when the output changes very slowly or remains constant after a span of time. And static characteristics are the characteristics that changes very slowly or remains constant.
13. What is the mean value of a distance observation set taken by a distance measurement sensor?
Observations={3,3.213,3.11,2.97}
a) 3.0325
b) 3.2
c) 3.125
d) 3.07325
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Observation set={3,3.213,3.11,2.97}
Mean=Sum of observations/Total number of observations
Mean=/4
Mean=3.07325
14. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a distance measuring sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 6.16cm but the actual distance is 6.03cm?
a) 13:719
b) 13:603
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=6.03 cm
Measured Value=6.16 cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=6.16cm-6.03cm=>0.13cm
Relative accuracy=
Relative accuracy==>13:603
15. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an infrared sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.32cm but the actual value is 3.1cm?
a) 12%
b) 7.09%
c) 6%
d) 1%
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=3.1cm
Measured Value=3.32cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=3.32cm-3.1cm=>0.22cm
Relative error=*100
Relative error=7.09%
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Dynamic Characteristics”.
1. Which error is also termed as measurement error?
a) Static errors
b) Dynamic errors
c) Systematic errors
d) Statical error
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic error is also termed as measurement error under specified conditions. Dynamic error is defined as the difference between the actual or true value with a quantity that changes with time.
2. In retardation type measuring lag the instrument responds after an unspecified dead time lag.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In retardation type measuring lag the instrument does not responds after an unspecified dead time lag. The instruments respond immediately as soon as a change in measured quantity is encountered.
3. Active transducers do not require power source for operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Active transducers do not require power source for operation. These types of transducers convert one form of energy to another without any external power source. Example:- Photovoltaic cells present in solar panels.
4. Which among the following transducer is an example of active transducer?
a) LDR
b) Strain gauge
c) Hall effect sensor
d) Photovoltaic cell
Answer: d
Explanation: Photovoltaic cell is an example of active transducer. Active transducers are those types of transducers that convert one form of energy to another without any external power source. Photovoltaic cells are present in solar panels that generates electricity from sunlight.
5. Which among the following transducer is an example of passive transducer?
a) Chemical transducer
b) Thermoelectric transducer
c) Strain gauge
d) Piezoelectric transducer
Answer: c
Explanation: Strain gauge is an example of passive transducer. Passive transducers are those types of transducers that bring change in passive electrical quantity usually with the help of external power source. Strain gauge is a device that changes its resistance when there is change in applied pressure.
6. Fidelity is a static characteristic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Fidelity is not a static characteristic. It is a dynamic characteristic of an instrument. Fidelity refers to the degree of exactness of a measured value with a measured quantity that has been measured without dynamic errors.
7. Measuring lag is a dynamic characteristic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Measuring lag is a dynamic characteristic. Sensors, transducers or any instrument do not respond immediately to the change in input. Measuring lag refers delay in response of an instrument to the change in input.
8. In time delay type measuring lag the instrument responds immediately as soon as the input is altered.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In time delay type measuring lag the instrument does not responds immediately as soon as the input is altered. In this type of time delay type measuring lag the instrument responds after an unspecified dead time lag.
9. Which instrument can be used to measure time without any errors?
a) Analog Clock
b) Digital Clock
c) Atomic clock
d) Doomsday clock
Answer: c
Explanation: Atomic clock is an instrument can be used to measure time without any static errors. These are the most accurate instrument that can accurately measure time and frequency and are used as standard for different purpose such as for global navigation satellite systems.
10. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
a) By increasing accuracy
b) By increasing precession
c) By reducing sensitivity
d) By reducing time lag
Answer: d
Explanation: Dynamic errorcan be reduced by reducing time lag. Accuracy, precession and sensitivity are static characteristics. Dynamic errors are caused when the instruments do not respond immediately therefore reducing time lag will reduce dynamic error.
11. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristic?
a) Precession
b) Measuring lag
c) Dynamic error
d) Fidelity
Answer: a
Explanation: Precession is not a dynamic characteristic. It comes under static characteristic. Dynamic characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s that vary rapidly with time. Precession is the closeness of a single observation among the predefined sets of observations.
12. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristic?
a) Response speed
b) Accuracy
c) Retardation type measuring lag
d) Time delay lag
Answer: b
Explanation: Accuracy is not a dynamic characteristic. It comes under static characteristic. Static characteristics are related to steady state response. Accuracy is the observation closest to the true value.
13. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
a) By increasing stability
b) By increasing tolerance
c) By increasing resolution
d) By increasing speed of response
Answer: d
Explanation: Dynamic error can be reduced by increasing speed of response. Stability, tolerance and resolution are static characteristics. Dynamic errors are caused when the instruments do not respond immediately therefore increasing speed of response will reduce dynamic error.
14. Which among the following transducer is an example of passive transducer?
a) Photovoltaic cell
b) Thermocouple
c) Piezoelectric transducer
d) Thermistor
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermistor is an example of passive transducer. Passive transducers are those types of transducers that bring change in passive electrical quantity usually with the help of external power source. Thermistor is a device that changes its resistance when there is change in temperature.
15. Which among the following transducer is an example of active transducer?
a) LDR
b) Thermocouple
c) LVDT
d) Thermistor
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermocouple is an example of active transducer. Active transducers are those types of transducers that convert one form of energy to another without any external power source. Thermocouple consists of two rods made of different metal welded at a junction. When it senses a temperature difference it generates a voltage.
This set of Mechatronics Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Displacement Sensors”.
1. An Eddy current type displacement sensor can detect which types of objects?
a) Wooden Objects
b) Metal Objects
c) Plastic Objects
d) Bricks
Answer: b
Explanation: Eddy current type displacement sensor can detect metal objects because it uses high frequency magnetic field for the detection of objects. When this metallic object come in the range of magnetic field, due to the electromagnetic induction, eddy current starts to flow through the object in vertical direction which causes a change in the impedance of the sensor. This change in impedance is used to measure the distance.
2. Which displacement sensor has the slowest response time among Optical type, Eddy current type, Ultrasonic type and Laser focus type?
a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultrasonic type displacement sensor has the slowest response time among all the above mentioned type sensors. It’s so because it uses ultrasonic sound waves for the measurement while Optical and Laser type uses light for the measurement which is much faster than the ultrasonic waves. Eddy current type sensors uses high frequency magnetic field which is also faster than the ultrasonic waves.
3. Which displacement sensor has the lowest accuracy to measure displacement among Optical type, Eddy current type, Ultrasonic type, Laser focus type?
a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultrasonic type displacement sensor has the lowest accuracy to measure displacement among all the above mentioned type sensors. It’s so because it uses ultrasonic sound waves for the measurement while Optical and Laser type uses light for the measurement which is much faster than the ultrasonic waves and also has quick response time. Eddy current type sensors uses high frequency magnetic field which too has a greater response time compared the ultrasonic type which make it more accurate in measuring distances.
4. What is the International System of length used to measure displacement?
a) Metre
b) Kilo Meter
c) Centimetre
d) Yards
Answer: a
Explanation: The international system of length, also known as the SI unit of length is metres. In MKS system the standard unit of measuring length is metre, mass in kilogram and time in seconds. This MKS unit is mostly used in engineering field, but for basic physics field the most common system is the CGS system where the unit of measurement of length is in centimetres, mass in grams and time in seconds.
5. Displacement sensors can also be used to measure an object’s thickness, height and width.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition to measure the relative displacement of an object, these sensors can also be used to measure the dimensions of an object. This measurement can be done either by non-contact methods by using light, sound waves or through making an actual contact with this object.
6. Interferometer can be used for accurate measurement of distance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Interferometer can be used for accurate measurement of distance. It can measure small things with incredibly high accuracy by comparing light or radio beams. It uses the wave pattern interfaces to measure the distance by comparing reflected or refracted waves coming from objects.
7. ECS in context to displacement measurement stands for ____
a) Electronic Chirp Scaling
b) Extended Chirp Scaling
c) Electronic Chip Scaling
d) Extended Chip Scaling
Answer: b
Explanation: ECS in context to displacement measurement stands for Extended chirp scaling. It’s a commonly used algorithm used for SAR imaging.
8. Bently nevada 3300 xl 5/8mm in an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Proximitor Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
Answer: b
Explanation: Bently nevada 3300 xl 5/8mm in an example of proximitor sensor. This sensor is mostly used in industrial sector, it measures the very small movements due to vibrations caused by the big machinaries. It helps the employee to monitor and control the vibrations in machines.
9. Potentiometer as a displacement sensor works on the principle of ________
a) Mutual Inductance
b) Self Inductance
c) Variable Resistance Transduction
d) Hall Effect
Answer: c
Explanation: Potentiometer as a displacement sensor works on the principle of Variable resistance transduction. They are linear or rotary potentiometers which converts this rotation in potential difference and this potential difference is used for calculating the displacement.
10. In capacitive sensors the displacement is measured with respect to change in which internal factor of the sensor?
a) Capacitance
b) Resistance
c) Inductance
d) Effervescence
Answer: a
Explanation: In capacitive sensors the displacement is measured with respect to change in capacitance of the sensor. The displacement changes the area of overlap of the charged plates also it moves the dielectric between the plates which results in change of the dielectric constant and hence both the factors lead in the overall change of the capacitance.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Position Sensors”.
1. Which type of position can be determined by a position sensor?
a) Mechanical position
b) Lateral position
c) Prone position
d) Lithotomy position
Answer: a
Explanation: Position sensors are capable of determining mechanical position of an object with respect to an arbitrary reference point. In addition, these sensors are also capable of detecting the presence of an object nearby.
2. What is the principle of operation of Potentiometric position sensor?
a) Resistive Effect
b) Hall Effect
c) Mutual Inductance
d) Eddy current effect
Answer: a
Explanation: The Potentiometric position sensor works on the principle of resistive effect. These sensors basically have a potentiometer built in it whose resistance can be altered using a slider, this resistive track is used as a sensing element for measuring the distance.
3. How the capacitance in a capacitive position sensor is altered?
a) By changing dielectric constant
b) By changing overlapping area of plates
c) By changing both dielectric constant and overlapping area
d) By adding a resistance in parallel
Answer: c
Explanation: The capacitance in a capacitive position sensor can be changed by altering the dielectric constant as well as by changing overlapping area of the plates. Dielectric change can be achieved by changing the material placed between the plates, while the change in overlapping area can be done by fixing a plate and overlapping the other plate on the body of the first one.
4. Which type of materials can be detected by Eddy current position sensor?
a) Conducting materials
b) Insulating materials
c) Semi-Insulating Materials
d) Amorphous Materials
Answer: a
Explanation: The position of conducting material can be determined by the Eddy current position sensor. Since the eddy current effect is observed in conducting materials, the sensors working on this principle can detect and determine the position of the conducting materials only.
5. LIDAR stands for ________
a) Light Detection and Radiation
b) Light Detection and Ranging
c) Lithium Detector and Radiator
d) Lithium Detection and Ranging
Answer: b
Explanation: LIDAR stands for Light Detection and Ranging. It emits optical laser light in pulses and can detect the X,Y,Z co-ordinates of an object. This technology is widely used in archaeological surveys.
6. LVDT position sensor is a capacitive type of position sensor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: LVDT is not a capacitive type of position sensor. It’s an inductive type of position sensor. It stands for Linear Variable Differential Transformer. It works on the same principal as an AC transformer. It is very accurate in measuring linear movements.
7. Proximity sensor is a ____ type of position sensor.
a) contact
b) non-contact
c) eddy current
d) resistive
Answer: b
Explanation: Proximity sensor is a non-contact type of position sensor. There are several type of proximity sensors that uses electromagnetic fields, light and sound for detection of the objects and their position.
8. OptoNCDT 1420 in an example of which type of position sensor?
a) Infrared type position sensor
b) Proximity type position sensor
c) Ultrasonic type position sensor
d) Laser triangulation type position sensor
Answer: d
Explanation: OptoNCDT 1420 in an example of Laser triangulation type position sensor. This sensor can detect the position as well as the distance covered by a particular object. They provide very high accuracy and has set a milestone in the field of position sensing.
9. Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of ________
a) Mutual Inductance
b) Faraday’s law of Induction
c) Variable Resistance Transduction
d) Hall Effect
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of Faraday’s law of Induction. According to this, the magnitude of the electromotive force induced is directly proportional to the change in the magnetic flux that cuts through it.
Answer: a
Explanation: OptoNCDT ILR 1030 is laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances. They are very precise and accurate. The range of these sensors varies from 10m to 3000 metres.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Proximity Sensors”.
1. Which type of material can be sensed by inductive proximity sensor?
a) Wooden type
b) Metallic type
c) Plastic type
d) Glass type
Answer: b
Explanation: Metallic type of material can be sensed by inductive proximity sensor. Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, that is it creates a magnetic field which induces an emf which used to determine the presence of objects.
2. Will an infrared proximity sensor detect a black object when it comes in suitable range?
a) Yes, It will detect the object
b) No, It will not detect the object
c) Yes but it will produce random output
d) The sensor will stop working
Answer: b
Explanation: No, It will not detect the object if a black object comes in the range of an infrared proximity sensor. Since infrared proximity sensors work on reflection of Infrared ray from the objects but when these rays hit a black object, the ray gets absorbed and does not bounce back. So the sensor is unable to detect the object.
3. Which is the emf induced in a coil if it has 8 turns and rate of change of flux with respect to time is 0.5?
a) -10 V
b) -25 V
c) 5.5 V
d) -4 V
Answer: d
Explanation:Given:
Number of turns=8
Change of flux with respect to time=0.5
Emf=-N*
e=>-8*0.5=-4 V
-4 V is the emf induced in a coil if it has 8 turns and rate of change of flux with respect to time is 0.5.
4. Which metal will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor?
a) Iron
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Lead
Answer: a
Explanation: Iron will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor. A ferrous metal enables a longer range of detection where as non-ferrous metals can reduce the sensing range by 60%. Iron is a ferrous metal whereas all others are non-ferrous which is why iron will have a longer range of detection.
5. A proximity sensor requires physical contact.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A proximity sensor does not require any physical contact. It can detect objects at distant places without a touch or contact. It uses electromagnetic waves for the detection. Most of the proximity sensor uses infrared waves for detection.
6. An inductive proximity sensor cannot detect a metallic object if it is wet or dirty.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: An inductive proximity sensor can detect a metallic object even if it is wet or dirty. Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, that is it creates a magnetic field which induces an emf which used to determine the presence of objects. The water and dirt does not interfere the magnetic field so it can detect a metallic object even if it is wet or dirty.
7. Which is has the number of turns in a coil if the emf induced in it is -2.5V and rate of change of flux with respect to time is 0.5?
a) -1.5 V
b) -2.5 V
c) 5.5 V
d) -3 V
Answer: b
Explanation:Given:
Emf induced in it is -2.5V
Change of flux with respect to time=0.5
Emf=-N*
-2.5=-N*0.5
N=5
Therefore, the coil has total 5 turns.
8. Inductive sensors are also referred as “NMR” coils. What does NMR stand for?
a) Nuclei Magneto resonance
b) Nuclei Magnetic resonator
c) Nuclear Magnetic resonator
d) Nuclear Magnetic resonance
Answer: d
Explanation: NMR stands for Nuclear Magnetic resonance. The “NMR ” coils detect the magnetic component of the EM field linked with the nuclear spin precession in Nuclear Magnetic resonance.
9. Which metal will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor?
a) Zinc
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Lead
Answer: b
Explanation: Steel will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor. A ferrous metal enables a longer range of detection where as non-ferrous metals can reduce the sensing range by 60%. Steel is a ferrous metal whereas all others are non-ferrous which is why Steel will have a longer range of detection.
10. Which is an example of infrared proximity sensor?
a) GP2Y0A41SK0F
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
Answer: a
Explanation: GP2Y0A41SK0F is an example of infrared proximity sensor. It is used for detecting object in short range. BMP180 is an example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Which is the emf induced in a coil if it has 10 turns and rate of change of flux with respect to time is 1?
a) -10 V
b) -25 V
c) 5.5 V
d) -3 V
Answer: a
Explanation:Given:
Number of turns = 10
Change of flux with respect to time=1
Emf=-N*
e=>-10*1=-10 V
-10 V is the emf induced in a coil if it has 10 turns and rate of change of flux with respect to time is 1.
12. A capacitive proximity sensor can detect only metallic object.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A capacitive proximity sensor can also detect other object other than just metallic object. It can detect all objects that have a dielectric constant other than air. These type of sensors are widely used in appliances such as track-pads or touch-screen sensors.
13. A proximity sensor does not work if the temperature exceeds 100 degree Celsius.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A proximity sensor can work even if the temperature exceeds 100 degree Celsius. They can work on a wide temperature range which may extends from -40 degree Celsius to 200 degree Celsius and even more. They can work accurately at any temperature within this range.
14. Which type of proximity sensor can be used as touch sensor?
a) Inductive proximity sensor
b) Capacitive proximity sensor
c) Ultrasonic proximity sensor
d) Photoelectric proximity sensor
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitive proximity sensor can be used as touch sensor. Capacitive proximity sensors can detect all objects that have a dielectric constant other than air. When a human finger comes in contact to the sensor, it immediately responds to this touch.
15. Which type of proximity sensor can detect a magnetic substance even if a wall of non-ferrous substance is made?
a) Magnetic proximity sensor
b) Capacitive proximity sensor
c) Ultrasonic proximity sensor
d) Photoelectric proximity sensor
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic proximity sensor can detect a magnetic substance even if a wall of non-ferrous substance is made. It can detect the objects beyond the normal limit of inductive proximity sensor. Since magnetic field can penetrate any wall made of ferrous substance, so they can easily detect a magnetic substance placed beyond the wall.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Motion Sensors”.
1. Which type of lens is generally used in the PIR sensors?
a) Concave lens
b) Convex lens
c) Bifocal lens
d) Fresnel Lens
Answer: b
Explanation: Fresnel lens is most commonly used lens in the PIR sensors. These Lens help to evenly distribute the Passive Infrared waves around it which facilitates it to detect motion in 180 degrees in all X,Y and Z axis.
2. The Samuel motion sensor works on which principle?
a) Hall effect
b) Inductive effect
c) Doppler effect
d) Capacitive Effect
Answer: c
Explanation: The Samuel motion sensor works on the principle of “Doppler Effect”. It states that, it is the change in the frequency of light, sound or any other wave in relation to observer who is in motion with respect to wave source.
3. Tomographic sensors uses which type of waves for motion detection?
a) Radio waves
b) Ultrasonic waves
c) Infrared waves
d) Microwaves
Answer: a
Explanation: Tomographic sensors uses radio-waves for motion detection. They can sense objects when those radio waves are disrupted. They are generally very costly and are mostly used in the industrial areas.
4. Combined motion sensors are triggered when all the motion sensors detect a motion.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Combined motion sensors are triggered when all the motion sensors detect a motion. If any one of the sensor detect motion then the alarm is not triggered. This facility eliminates the possibility of fake alarms.
5. Microwave motion sensors has more area coverage than the PIR sensors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Microwave motion sensors have larger area of coverage than that of the Passive Infrared sensors as it uses Microwaves for the detection of the objects. They are usually more expensive than the PIR sensors.
6. What is the frequency range of the ultrasonic sound waves used by the ultrasonic sensors?
a) 20000Hz to 25000Hz
b) 25KHz to 50KHz
c) 25Hz to 55Hz
d) 25Hz to 50Hz
Answer: b
Explanation: The Ultrasonic Sensors produces sound waves of frequency in the range of 25KHz to 50KHz. These Ultrasonic sounds produced by the sensors transmitter bounce back the in the same path when it encounters an object in its path. The receiver part receives these waves and calculates the distance and displacement accordingly.
7. PIR stands for ____
a) Passive Infrared
b) Pulsating Infrared
c) Pulsating ratio
d) Pulse is radiation
Answer: b
Explanation: PIR stands for Passive infrared. The PIR sensors are most commonly used motion sensors that are used for detecting motion by recognizing the heat sensors. They are designed to detect body heat and for motion recognition.
8. RCWL- 0516 is an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Microwave Radar Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
Answer: b
Explanation: RCWL- 0516 is an example of Microwave radar sensor. It is used as an alternative to the PIR sensors. They are cheap and more accurate. Due to the usage of the microwaves, they have a greater range of detecting objects.
9. The distance range of detection of the PIR sensor is ________
a) 5-10 cm
b) 5-7 m
c) Up to 12 m
d) 5-12 cm
Answer: c
Explanation: The range of detection of the PIR sensor is up to 12 meter. They can accurately detect objects in motion in this range. These sensors constitute of a pyroelectric sensors that can detect different levels of infrared radiation.
10. “SAW” in respect to acoustic wave technology stands for ______
a) Sound Acoustic Wave
b) Surface Acoustic Wave
c) Simple Acoustic Wave
d) Surface Acoustic Wave
Answer: b
Explanation: “SAW” in respect to acoustic wave technology stands for Surface Acoustic Wave. This wave is used in the acoustic sensor for detection of motion. It is named so because acoustic wave has to propagate through a surface as a medium, any change in the propagation path, changes the velocity and other property of wave which is used to detect motion in these acoustic sensors.
11. A car moves with a speed of 30 km/hr. What will be the speed of the same car measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a truck which is moving with a speed of 20 km/hr in the same direction?
a) 30 km/hr
b) 50 km/hr
c) 10 km/hr
d) 0 km/hr
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed of the same car measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a truck will be 10 km/hr. Since both car and the truck moves in the same direction therefore the relative velocity of the car will be 30–20=>10km/hr.
12. A moving platform moves with a speed of 100 km/hr. What will be the speed of a boy who is running on it with a speed of 10 km/hr along the motion of the moving track measured by a speed sensor placed on stationary ground?
a) 150 km/hr
b) 160 km/hr
c) 110 km/hr
d) 140 km/hr
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed of the boy measured by a speed sensor who is running on the moving platform will be 110 km/hr. Since both move in the same direction then the speed of the boy gets added up with the speed of the moving platform therefore net speed becomes 100+10=110.
13. A car moves with a speed of 60 km/hr. What will be the speed of the same car measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a bicycle which is moving with a speed of 12 km/hr in the opposite direction?
a) 60 km/hr
b) 72 km/hr
c) 58 km/hr
d) 48 km/hr
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of the same car measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a bicycle will be 72 km/hr. Since both car and the truck moves in the opposite direction therefore the relative velocity of the car with respect to bicycle will be 60+12=>72km/hr.
14. A moving platform moves with a speed of 80 km/hr. What will be the speed of a boy who is running on it with a speed of 20 km/hr opposite to the motion of the moving track measured by a speed sensor placed on stationary ground?
a) 50 km/hr
b) 60 km/hr
c) 100 km/hr
d) 160 km/hr
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of the boy measured by a speed sensor who is running on the moving platform will be 60 km/hr. Since the boy and the moving platform moves in opposite direction then the speed of the boy gets subtracted with the speed of the moving platform therefore net speed becomes 80-20=60.
Answer: a
Explanation: speed of a stationary bicycle measured by a speed sensor will be 50 km/hr. Since car is moving with a speed of 50 km/hr therefore relative speed of the bicycle with respect to car will be 50–0=50 km/hr.
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This set of Mechatronics Problems focuses on “Velocity Sensors”.
1. Which type of velocity sensor has a fixed permanent magnet attached to it?
a) Pyroelectric type
b) Piezoelectric type
c) Moving coil type
d) Stationary coil type
Answer: c
Explanation: Moving coil type of velocity sensor has a fixed permanent magnet attached to it. The coil inside it has a relative motion with respect to the stationary magnet. When the coil is in motion, an electromagnetic force is induced in the coil due to electromagnetic induction. This electromagnetic force is proportional to the velocity of the moving object.
2. What is the unit in which tachometers measure velocity?
a) Revolution per minute
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute
Answer: a
Explanation: Tachometers measure velocity in Revolution per minute . They also act as revolution counters, they can also count the number of revolution an object has made in the required interval of time.
3. Which type of tachometer contain primary and secondary stators with fixed windings?
a) AC tachometers
b) DC tachometers
c) Alternating tachometers
d) Brushless tachometers
Answer: a
Explanation: AC tachometers contain primary and secondary stators with fixed windings. It provides fixed output voltage when the rotor is stationary and varying voltage only when the rotor is moving, this varying voltage is proportional to the velocity of the revolving object.
4. For what purpose, a “tachometer” is used?
a) It is used for calculating velocity in revolution per minute
b) It is used for calculating the number of revolutions
c) It is used for calculating velocity in revolution per second
d) It is used for calculating the velocity in rpm and number of revolutions
Answer: d
Explanation: Tachometer is used to calculate velocity in revolution per minute. It can also be used as a revolution counter to calculate the number of revolutions the object has made which we have taken into consideration.
5. The Laser surface velocimeter works on dopplers principle.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Laser surface velocimeter works on dopplers principle or the dopplers effect. According to dopplers effect, there is change in the intensity of wave when the source and observer move towards or away from each other.
6. Accelerometer can be used to measure the tilt.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition of measuring the inertial measurement of velocity and position, accelerometers can be also used to measure the degree of tilt by considering the acceleration due to gravity as reference. These are generally used in self balancing robots.
7. What does RPM stand for?
a) Rotation per minute
b) Revolution per minute
c) Rounds per minute
d) Rotation per millisecond
Answer: b
Explanation: RPM stands for revolution per minute. It is the most commonly used unit in motor appliances and motor vehicles for denoting the speed of the crank shaft in the engine.
8. _______ velocity sensor is a type of velocity sensor
a) Infrared
b) Proximitor
c) Piezoelectric
d) Ultrasonic
Answer: c
Explanation: Piezoelectric velocity sensor is a type of velocity sensor. The output of the velocity sensor is proportional to the velocity of the object. Since the output of the sensor is very small so it mostly needs an amplifier for using it for any application.
9. LSV in terms of velocity measurement stands for ________
a) Laser Surface Velocimeter
b) Laser Surface Velocity meter
c) Linear Surface Velocimeter
d) Linear Surface Velocity meter
Answer: a
Explanation: LSV in terms of velocity measurement stands for Laser surface velocimeter. It is a non-contact type velocity measuring tool which uses the laser doppler effect for evaluating the light scattered from the moving object.
10. Which is a type of velocity sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
Answer: b
Explanation: CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. It is used to examine very small vibrations in terms of velocity. Since these received signals are of very low frequency, they need an amplifier to amplify the received signal and convert them in terms of velocity.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Force Sensors”.
1. Which is the most common load cell used in the force sensors?
a) Hydraulic load cells
b) Strain-Gauge based load cells
c) Pneumatic load cells
d) Capacitive load cells
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain-Gauge based load cells are the most common load cell used in the force sensors. It is a transducer that is used for sensing the force, it converts the applied force into electrical signals which is used for sensing the amount of load that is applied.
2. What is the standard capacity of tension load cells to measure load?
a) 25,000 to 100,000 lbs
b) 25,00 to 10,000 lbs
c) 25,000 to 100,000 Kg
d) 25,00 to 10,000 Kg
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard capacity of tension cells to measure load ranges from 25,000 to 100,000 lbs. Tension cells calculate the applied force based upon the tension applied on beams or cables. Though this range can be exceeded in the custom ones.
3. Which force sensor is not a strain gauge type force sensor?
a) Load pins
b) Shear beams
c) Tension links
d) ALC annular load cell
Answer: d
Explanation: ALC annular load cell sensor is not a strain gauge type force sensor. It is a capacitive load cell or a capacitive based load sensor. Other all the remaining are stress gauge type force sensors which are used to measure tension or sheer forces.
4. Which transducer does not require any external power supply for working?
a) Strain gauge transducer
b) Piezoelectric Crystals
c) Hydraulic transducer
d) Pneumatic transducer
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric Crystals does not require any external power supply for working. They generate a voltage when an external force is applied on it which is directly proportional to the external applied force. These sensors need special indicators for measuring that voltage change.
5. RFI , moisture and temperature cannot interfere with the signals sent by the load cells.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: RFI , moisture and temperature can interfere with the signals sent by the load cells. RFI acts as electrical noise to the force transducer’s signal. Moisture can wick itself the cables and can create a difference in capacitance between the signal lines. Temperature affects the resistance of the cables and thus can create an interference in the original signal.
6. Higher capacitive load cells can ensure Wind loading and shock loading.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher capacitive load cells can ensure Wind loading and shock loading. Wind and shock waves can affect the actual measurement of weight or force calculated. Using higher capacitive load cells will eliminate the very small changes caused by these external factors and only give the correct ones in the output.
7. RFI is electrical noise to load cells. What does RFI stand for?
a) Radio Frequency Interface
b) Radio Frequency Interference
c) Relay Frequency Interference
d) Relay Frequency Interface
Answer: b
Explanation: RFI stand for Radio Frequency Interference. Radio frequency interference is also called as Electromagnetic interference . It is electrical noise to the load cell signal sent from the sensor.
8. What causes the problem of 60-hertz hum?
a) In-appropriate voltage supply
b) Absence of digital to analog converter
c) In-appropriate current supply
d) Absence of analog to digital converter
Answer: d
Explanation: Absence of analog to digital converter can causes the problem of 60-hertz hum. The controllers is advised to have a digital to analog converter which can be synchronised with the 60 Hz frequency signals in the power supply lines.
9. What is the phenomenon on which magnetoelastic force sensors work?
a) Villari effect
b) Hall effect
c) Lenz law
d) Mutual Induction
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetoelastic force sensors work on “Villari effect” also known as the magnetoelastic effect. It was named after an Italian physicist who discovered it. This effect states that when a ferromagnetic material is subjected to stress then there is change in the magnetic flux. This effect is known as the “Villari effect”.
10. Which is an example of force sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) L298N
Answer: c
Explanation: SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. It is a strain transducer that converts the strain to electrical signals. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”, CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor and L298N is a motor driver.
11. What is the value of force measured by a force sensor lying on a plane ground if a block of mass 3 kg is kept on it and a normal upward tensile force of 5 Newton is applied on the block? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s 2 )
a) 15 Newton
b) 25 Newton
c) 30 Newton
d) 24 Newton
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=3kg
Normal upward force=5Newton
Net force due to block=Force due to mass of block-Normal upward force
Force due to mass of block=mass*acceleration
Force due to mass of block=3*10=>30N
Net force due to block=30N-5N=>25N
12. What is the value of force measured by a force sensor lying on a plane ground if a block of mass 2 kg is kept on it and a normal upward tensile force of 4 Newton is applied on the block? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s 2 )
a) 15 Newton
b) 20 Newton
c) 16 Newton
d) 24 Newton
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=2kg
Normal upward force=4 Newton
Net force due to block=Force due to mass of block-Normal upward force
Force due to mass of block=mass*acceleration
Force due to mass of block=2*10=>20N
Net force due to block=20N-4N=>16N
13. What is the value of force, measured by a force sensor placed on the wall; if a rigid block of mass 3kg is smashed against the wall with an acceleration of 5m/s 2 ? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s 2 )
a) 15 Newton
b) 20 Newton
c) 16 Newton
d) 0 Newton
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block = 3 kg
Acceleration of block=5m/s 2
Force experienced by sensor=mass*acceleration
Force experienced by sensor=3*5=>15 N
14. What should be the acceleration of a rigid body of mass 5kg; if a force sensor measures a normal collision impact force of 15N?
a) 5 m/s 2
b) 13 m/s 2
c) 6 m/s 2
d) 3 m/s 2
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=5 kg
Force measured by the force sensor=15N
Force experienced by sensor=mass of body*acceleration of body
Acceleration of body=Force experienced by sensor/mass
Acceleration of body=15N/5kg=>3m/s 2
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Acceleration Sensors”.
1. What will be the value measured by an accelerometer in free fall?
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Error
d) 9.81
Answer: a
Explanation: In a free fall the accelerometer will measure value=0. In a stationary state the accelerometer will measure the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s 2 but in a free fall the acceleration of the falling accelerometer is also 9.81 m/s 2 in the same direction, therefore the relative acceleration of the accelerometer becomes zero.
2. Which is the name of the accelerometer that is used to measure the gravity of the earth?
a) MPU6050
b) Gravitymeter
c) Gravitometer
d) Gravimeter
Answer: d
Explanation: Gravimeter are the accelerometer that is used to measure the gravity of the earth. The gravity of the earth varies from place to place depending upon the type of plain, plateau etc. This determination of acceleration due to gravity is called gravimetry.
3. What is the exact value of acceleration due to gravity taken in consideration?
a) 10 m/s 2
b) 9.80665 m/s 2
c) 9 m/s 2
d) 0 m/s 2
Answer: b
Explanation: The exact standard acceleration due to gravity is taken as 9.80665 m/s 2 . For general calculations it is assumed to be 10 m/s 2 . It the acceleration in which the earth pulls all the object present on the surface of earth. This acceleration varies at the poles of the earth.
4. Which element is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing?
a) Germanium
b) Silicon
c) Lead
d) Carbon
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing. It is relatively cheap and exhibits far better performance in the low frequency range. They can provide a higher stability and linearity when operated in servo mode.
5. MEMS stands for ________
a) Micro electric mechanical system
b) Micro electro mechanical system
c) Mini electro mechanical system
d) Mini electronic mechanical system
Answer: b
Explanation: MEMS stands for Micro electro mechanical system. Accelerometers, Gyroscopes and pressure sensors are MEMS sensors. It is a technology using which most of the accelerometers and other sensors are designed.
6. Accelerometers can be used for sensing mechanical vibrations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Accelerometers can be used for sensing mechanical vibrations. They can detect even very precise vibrations in the machine. Since the vibration is in single plane a two axis accelerometer is best suited for the measurement.
7. Acceleration is a ______ quantity.
a) scalar
b) vector
c) tensor
d) resistive
Answer: b
Explanation: Acceleration is a vector quantity. It is a vector quantity because it depends on both, magnitude of acceleration as well as the direction of acceleration. Had it been only dependent on magnitude, it would be a scalar quantity but it is not so.
8. MPU6050 in an example of which type of sensor?
a) Acceleration sensor
b) Proximity Sensor
c) Ultrasonic sensor
d) Laser sensor
Answer: a
Explanation: MPU6050 is an example of Acceleration sensor. It consists both 3 axis accelerometer and 3 axis gyroscope, which is capable of measuring very precise movements and accelerations.
9. Piezoelectric accelerometers converts ________ energy to ______energy.
a) mechanical, sound
b) mechanical, electrical
c) sound, electrical
d) sound, electrical
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric accelerometers converts mechanical energy to electrical energy. The word piezoelectric is derived from a Greek word “piezein” which means to press or squeeze. When any mechanical variable such as force or shock is applied on the input, then it produces subsequent electrical signals which is used to measure its magnitude.
10. Which is an example of accelerometer?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT 1420
c) ADXl 335
d) EddyNCDT 3301
Answer: c
Explanation: ADXl 335 is an example of accelerometer. OptoNCDTILR 1030 and OptoNCDT 1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
11. A free falling heavy object will have more acceleration than a free falling light object if released from a same height.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A free falling heavy object will not have more acceleration than a free falling light object if released from a same height. Both the object will experience same acceleration due to gravity, which is why a free falling light object and heavy object will reach the ground at the same time if released from a same height.
12. Who invented the first accelerometer?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) George Atwood
d) Walther Bothe
Answer: c
Explanation: George Atwood invented the first accelerometer. The first accelerometer was invented in the year 1783 and was originally named as Atwood machine. This machine was used to calculate linear accelerations.
13. What was the original name of first accelerometer?
a) Eskimometer
b) Atwood machine
c) Asimo machine
d) Pepper
Answer: b
Explanation: The original name of first accelerometer was Atwood machine. It was named after its inventor George Atwood. He was an English physicist who invented the first accelerometer in the year 1783.
14. AC response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static acceleration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: AC response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static acceleration such as acceleration due to gravity. They are designed to determine dynamic accelerations and events which changes regularly.
Answer: b
Explanation: DC response accelerometer can measure dynamic acceleration as well as static acceleration such as acceleration due to gravity. However, AC response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static acceleration. They are designed to determine dynamic accelerations and events which changes regularly.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Torque Sensors”.
1. Which is the formula for measurement of torque, provided “r” is the position vector and “f” is the force vector?
a) f*r*sinθ
b) f*r*cosθ
c) f*r*tanθ
d) f*r*secθ
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for measurement of torque, provided “r” is the position vector and “f” is the force vector is f*r*sinθ. Torque is the cross product of the force vector and position vector t=f x r, which ultimately gives f*r*sinθ.
2. What is the unit in which torque is measured?
a) Newton meter
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute
Answer: a
Explanation: The SI unit of torque is Newton-meter . Torque is defined as force multiplied by the position vector and Sine of the angle between the force vector and position vector. The corresponding SI unit of measurement is Newton and meter. So the SI unit is newton meter.
3. Which sensor is a type of inline torque sensor?
a) M425
b) FF425
c) RS425
d) ADXL345
Answer: a
Explanation: M425 sensor is a type of inline torque sensor. FF425 is a dual flange torque sensor. RS425 is completely contactless type torque sensor. ADXL345 is a 3 axis accelerometer.
4. What type of torque is associated with braking system of a vehicle, when brakes are applied?
a) Stationary torque
b) Dynamic torque
c) Static torque
d) Distinctive torque
Answer: c
Explanation: When brakes are applied in a moving vehicle, static torque is generated. It is because the force applied by the brakes is static as there is no acceleration involved, so the corresponding torque generated is called static torque.
5. Inline torque measurement is more accurate than reaction torque measurement.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Inline torque measurement is more accurate than reaction torque measurement. It is so because inline torque sensors are placed beside the torque carrying components, this eliminates the possibility of any other external parasitic torques to interfere.
6. Reaction torque measurement is done when acceleration is required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Reaction torque measurement is done when acceleration is not required. It is also called as static torque measurement. The word “static” itself denotes that the item on which the torque is measured should not be in motion.
7. What varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied?
a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Velocity
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied. A strain gauge has some electrical conductive material printed on an insulated substrate, when force is applied over it the material experiences a strain and the resistance of the material changes.
8. The two types of torque are: ______ torque and ________ torque.
a) Static torque, dynamic torque
b) Static torque, distinctive torque
c) Stationary torque, non-stationary torque
d) Dynamic, non-dynamic
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of torque are: Static torque and dynamic torque. The torque generated when there is no relative acceleration is called static torque. Whereas the torque generated due to dynamic acceleration or deacceleration is called dynamic torque.
9. SAW torque sensors are a wireless torque sensor. SAW stands for ________
a) Sound Acoustic Wave
b) Surface Acoustic Wave
c) Simple Acoustic Wave
d) Surface Acoustic Wave
Answer: b
Explanation: “SAW” stands for Surface Acoustic Wave. This wave is used in the acoustic sensor for detection of motion. It is named so because acoustic wave has to propagate through a surface as a medium, any change in the propagation path, changes the velocity and other property of wave which is used to detect motion in these acoustic torque sensors.
10. Which is a type of torque sensor?
a) CMCP793V-500
b) FF425
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
Answer: b
Explanation: FF425 is a type of torque sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. MPU 6050 is a 6 axis gyroscope and accelerometer. L298N is a motor driver with dual-H bridge.
11. What is the torque provided by a flywheel which is being rotated with a force of 2N and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 1m?
a) 2 Nm
b) 3 Nm
c) 4 Nm
d) 5 Nm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force = 2N
Radial distance=1m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector=90°
We know; Torque =f*r*sinθ
Torque =2*1*sin [since sin =1]
Torque =2 Nm
12. What is the torque provided by a flywheel which is being rotated with a force of 3N and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 0.5m?
a) 2 Nm
b) 3 Nm
c) 1.5 Nm
d) 5 Nm
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Force = 3N
Radial distance=0.5m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector =90°
We know; Torque =f*r*sinθ
Torque =3*0.5*sin [since sin =1]
Torque =1.5 Nm
13. What is the torque provided by a rotating object which is being rotated with a force of 6N and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 2m?
a) 3 Nm
b) 6 Nm
c) 1 Nm
d) 5 Nm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Force=6N
Radial distance=2m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector =30°
We know; Torque =f*r*sinθ
Torque =6*2*sin [since sin=1/2]
Torque =6Nm
14. What is the force provided for rotating object which is being rotated with a torque of 10 Nm and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 4m?
a) 13 N
b) 16 N
c) 10 N
d) 5 N
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Torque =10Nm
Radial distance=4m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector =30°
We know; Torque =f*r*sinθ
10 = f*4*sin [since sin =1/2]
F =5N
Answer: a
Explanation: If the radial distance vector and force vector are in the same line then the torque will be 0. Torque is the cross product of the force vector and position vector t=f x r, which ultimately gives f*r*sinθ. If radial distance vector and force vector are in the same line then θ=0 and sin0°=0. Therefore Torque=0.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Fluid Pressure Sensors”.
1. How is pressure defined in terms of force and area?
a) p = F*A
b) p = F+A
c) p = F/A
d) p = F-A
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure is defined as force per unit area pressure = force /Area of cross-section . The standard unit of force and area taken is Newton and 2 respectively.
2. What is the SI unit of pressure?
a) Pascal
b) Barye
c) Atm
d) Newton
Answer: a
Explanation: Pascal is the SI unit of pressure. 1 pascal = 1 Newton of force applied on 1 square meter of area. Barye is the CGS unit of pressure. Atm is used to measure atmospheric pressure, whereas Newton is unit of force.
3. 1 atm = ____ pascal or ______bar.
a) 101325, 101.325
b) 101325, 9.81
c) 1.01325, 101325
d) 101325, 1.01325
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 atm = 101325 Pascal or 1.01325 bar. 1 atm is the atmospheric pressure above the sea level pressure exerted by the atmosphere above the sea level. Pascal is the SI unit of pressure and 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to 101325 Pascal.
4. Whose pressure can be determined by the bourdon tube pressure gauge?
a) Solids
b) Fluids
c) Only Gas
d) Only liquids
Answer: b
Explanation: Bourdon tube can determine the pressure of the fluids. Fluids include all the materials that can flow, be it gas or liquid. Bourdon tube is curved, hollow tube. When the pressure in the tube increases, it causes a deformation in the shape of the tube. This deformation is used to determine the amount of pressure exerted by the fluid in the tube.
5. Absolute pressure is the sum of over pressure and atmospheric pressure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Absolute pressure is the sum of over pressure and atmospheric pressure. Over pressure is commonly known as gauge pressure, therefore P={P or P}+P.
6. Gauge pressure is the summation of absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Gauge pressure is the not summation of absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure. It the difference between the absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure P=P-P.
7. Which is not equal to 1 atmospheric pressure?
a) 101325 Pascal
b) 1.01325 Bar
c) 101.325 torr
d) 760 torr
Answer: c
Explanation: 101.325 torr is not equal to 1 atmospheric pressure. 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to 101325 pascal or 1.01325 bar or 760 torr. Pascal is the SI unit of pressure.
8. Which fluid is commonly used in U-tube manometers as a reference, in determining the pressure of the liquid?
a) Sodium
b) Argon
c) Water
d) Mercury
Answer: d
Explanation: Mercury is commonly used fluid in U-tube manometers as a reference, in determining the pressure of the liquid. The specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 which mean that it is 13.6 times heavier than water.
9. What is the pressure experienced by a wall, if a brick is thrown with a force 10 Newton and cross-section area of contact is 2 square metres?
a) 5 Pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 5 barye
d) 1 Atm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force of brick thrown=10 Newton
Cross-section area=2m 2
Since pressure =Force of brick thrown /Area of cross-section ,
P=10N/2m 2 =5 pascal.
10. Which is an example of pressure sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
Answer: d
Explanation: BMP180 is an example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. What is the pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if a rigid body is thrown normally with a force 5 Newton and cross-section area of contact is 1 square metre?
a) 5 Pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 5 Barye
d) 1 Atm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given;
Force of brick thrown=5 Newton
Cross-section area=1 m 2
Since pressure = Force of brick thrown /Area of cross-section ,
P=5N/1m 2 =5 Pascal.
12. What is the absolute pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if the atmospheric pressure of a fluid is 2 atm, gauge pressure is 5 atm and differential pressure is 3 atm?
a) 5 pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 7 barye
d) 7 Atm
Answer: d
Explanation: Given;
Atmospheric pressure=2 atm
Gauge pressure=5atm
Differential pressure=3 atm
Absolute pressure=Gauge pressure+Atmospheric pressure
Absolute pressure=5atm+2atm => 7atm
13. What is the gauge pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if the atmospheric pressure of a fluid is 1 atm, absolute pressure is 6 atm and differential pressure is 2 atm?
a) 5 pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 5 barye
d) 1 Atm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given;
Atmospheric pressure = 1 atm
Absolute pressure = 6 atm
Differential pressure = 3 atm
Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure-Atmospheric pressure
Gauge pressure = 6 atm-1atm => 5atm
14. What is the cross-section area of contact, if a brick is thrown with a force 10 Newton and the pressure experienced by a wall is 5 Pascal?
a) 2m 2
b) 5m 2
c) 4m 2
d) 3m 2
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force of brick thrown=10 Newton
Pressure experienced by a wall=5 Pascal
Since pressure =Force of brick thrown /Area of cross-section ,
5 Pascal=10/A
Area of cross-section =2m 2
15. What is the pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if a rigid body is thrown normally with a force 6 Newton and cross-section area of contact is 2 square metres?
a) 3 Pascal
b) 3 Atm
c) 3 Barye
d) 12 Atm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force of brick thrown=6 Newton
Cross-section area=2m 2
Since pressure =Force of brick thrown /Area of cross-section ,
P=6N/2m 2 =3 Pascal.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Liquid Flow Sensors”.
1. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of cross section area 0.5m 2 and velocity of the liquid is 0.5m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.25
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Cross section area=0.5 m 2
Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s
Flow rate=Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.5*0.5=0.25m 3 /s
2. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.2 m and velocity of the liquid is 0.6m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.07536
c) 0.0157
d) 0.0628
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Radius=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r 2
Cross section area=3.14* 2 => 0.1256
Velocity of the liquid=0.6m/s
Flow rate=Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.1256*0.6 => 0.07536m 3 /s
3. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.1 m and velocity of the liquid is 0.5m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.0157m 3 /s
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Radius=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r 2
Cross section area=3.14* 2 =>0.0314
Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s
Flow rate= Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.0314*0.5 => 0.0157m 3 /s
4. What is the SI unit of volumetric flow rate?
a) m 2 /s
b) m 3 /s
c) m/s
d) m 3 /s 2
Answer: b
Explanation: m 3 /s is the SI unit of volumetric flow rate, where “m” and “s” denotes meter and seconds respectively. Volumetric flow rate represents the rate at which a particular volume of fluid flows through a cross section area in 1 second.
5. High turbidity is bad for aquatic life.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: High turbidity is bad for aquatic life. Turbidity refers to the amount of sediments present in the water. High turbidity can block the sunlight which is essential for the aquatic plants to live. The turbidity contains several pathogens which may be harmful for the aquatic life.
6. Ultrasonic flow meter works on Doppler Effect.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic flow meter works on Doppler Effect. Ultrasonic flow meters are generally used for monitoring dirty water such as sewage waste water. It can detect large suspended particles and bubbles flowing through the channel.
7. Which is a gas flow meter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) FLUXUS G601
d) FMA-PC16
Answer: c
Explanation: FLUXUS G601 is a gas flow meter. FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
8. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.2 m and velocity of the liquid is 0.5 m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.0157
d) 0.0628
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Radius=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r 2
Cross section area=3.14* 2 =>0.1256
Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s
Flow rate= Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.1256*0.5=>0.0628m 3 /s
9. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of cross section area 0.2m 2 and velocity of the liquid is 0.5 m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.25
d) 0.1
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Cross section area=0.2m 2
Velocity of the liquid=0.5m/s
Flow rate=Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.2*0.5=0.1m 3 /s
10. Which is a mass flow meter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FMA-PC16
Answer: d
Explanation: FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Which liquid has lowest density?
a) Acetic acid
b) Pure water
c) Olive oil
d) Sea Water
Answer: c
Explanation: Olive oil has lowest density. Its density is 911kg/m 3 . Pure water has a density of 1000 kg/m 3 and Sea Water has a density of 1022 kg/m 3 . Acetic acid has the highest density among the four, with a density of 1049 kg/m 3 .
12. Which liquid will have more mass for same amount of volume?
a) Brine
b) Chloroform
c) Olive oil
d) Sea Water
Answer: b
Explanation: We know density=mass/volume
Since volume is constant so, mass is directly proportional to liquid. Therefore the liquid with highest density has the highest mass.
Olive oil has density is 911 kg/m 3 . Sea Water has a density of 1022kg/m 3 . Brine has a density of 1230kg/m 3 . Chloroform has the highest density among the four, with a density of 1489 kg/m 3 .
Therefore chloroform will have the highest mass.
13. Which liquid will have more mass for same amount of volume?
a) Coconut oil
b) Phosgene
c) Castor oil
d) Sea Water
Answer: b
Explanation: We know density=mass/volume
Since volume is constant so, mass is directly proportional to liquid. Therefore the liquid with highest density has the highest mass.
Castor oil has density is 952 kg/m 3 . Sea Water has a density of 1022kg/m 3 . Coconut oil has a density of 930kg/m 3 . Phosgene has the highest density among the four, with a density of 1378kg/m 3 .
Therefore Phosgene will have the highest mass.
14. Which is a Liquid flow sensor?
a) SLF3X
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FMA-PC16
Answer: a
Explanation: SLF3X is a Liquid flow sensor. It is durable, stable and provides long time durability for various applications. FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
15. What is the SI unit of flow rate of a Liquid or fluid?
a) m 3 /s
b) m 2 /s
c) m/s
d) m 3 /s 2
Answer: a
Explanation: m 3 /s is the SI unit of flow rate of a Liquid. Flow rate is calculated by considering unit of volume flowing in one second. SI unit of volume is m 3 and time is seconds, which gives the SI unit of flow as m 3 /s.
This set of Mechatronics Question Paper focuses on “Selection of Sensors”.
1. Which factor affects the least while selection of sensor?
a) Size
b) Accuracy
c) Colour
d) Durability
Answer: c
Explanation: Colour of a sensor affects the least while selection of sensor. Accuracy of the sensor is needed in order to achieve precise results. Size of the sensor depends on the area of application. And for the sensor to last long and give the same results, it must be durable enough.
2. Which sensor should one prefer for accurate measurement of distance upto 1 meter?
a) Ultrasonic sensor
b) Infrared sensor
c) PIR sensor
d) Photoresistor sensor
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic sensor should one prefer for accurate measurement of distance upto 1 meter. Infrared sensor can also be used for measuring distance but its range is less than a meter. PIR sensor and Photoresistor sensor cannot be used for measuring distance.
3. Which sensor one should prefer for detecting black objects?
a) Ultrasonic sensor
b) Infrared sensor
c) PIR sensor
d) Photoresistor sensor
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic sensor one should prefer for detecting black objects. Infrared sensor and PIR sensor cannot detect black objects, because they work on reflection of Infrared ray from the objects and black objects does not reflect infrared rays.
4. IR sensors can’t work in dark environment.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: IR sensors can work in dark environment. It does not require an external light source. They only need an Infrared emitter or any source of infrared and these sources are present on the sensor itself. So it can work in dark.
5. Arduino UNO is a microcontroller board based on ESP8266 IC.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Arduino UNO is not based on ESP8266 IC. It is a microcontroller board based on Atmega328P. It is a general purpose development board which contains 6 analog pins and 14 digital pins out of which 6 pins can be used as PWM outputs.
6. Which IC is present on NodeMCU?
a) ESP8266
b) Atmega326
c) Atmega328P
d) ESPN8266
Answer: a
Explanation: ESP8266IC is present on NodeMCU. It is a wifi enabled chip. It is developed by Espress if Systems. It is a low cost Wifi chip with TCP/IP protocol. Atmega328P is present on the Arduino UNO development board.
7. Which colour does not reflect infrared rays?
a) White
b) Black
c) Red
d) Green
Answer: b
Explanation: Black colour does not reflect infrared rays. All other colour reflects infrared rays. This is the reason why infrared sensors or any other infrared based sensor is unable to detect black coloured objects.
8. HC-SR04 is an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Microwave Radar Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
Answer: c
Explanation: HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. It is one of the most widely used ultrasonic sensor for robotic or arduino projects. It is cheap and gives accurate measurement of distance upto few metres.
9. What is the maximum distance range of detection of the HC-SR04?
a) 10 cm
b) 10 m
c) 5 feet
d) 13 feet
Answer: d
Explanation: 13 feet is the maximum distance range of detection of the HC-SR04. HC-SR04 is a Ultrasonic Sensor. It is cheap and one of the most widely used ultrasonic sensor for robotic or arduino projects.
10. What is the maximum range of HC-05?
a) 5 metre
b) 10 meter
c) 20 meter
d) 50 meter
Answer: b
Explanation: 10 meter is the maximum range of HC-05. HC-05 is a Bluetooth sensor which uses 2.45 gigaHertz frequency band for transmission. The transfer rate of data can go upto 1Mbps .
11. Which sensor should be used for calculating pressure?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
Answer: d
Explanation: MPX10DP sensor should be used for calculating pressure. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor. DHT11 is a temperature and humidity sensor.
12. Which sensor should be used for calculating humidity?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
Answer: a
Explanation: DHT11 sensor should be used for calculating humidity. It can also be used as temperature sensor. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor.
13. Which sensor should be used for calculating distance?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
Answer: c
Explanation: HC-SR04 sensor should be used for calculating distance. HC-SR04 is a Ultrasonic Sensor that has a range of 13 feet linearly. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor. DHT11 is a temperature and humidity sensor.
14. Which sensor should be used for calculating temperature as well as humidity?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
Answer: a
Explanation: DHT11 sensor should be used for calculating temperature as well as humidity. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor but it cannot calculate humidity.
15. Which sensor is used in line following robots?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Microwave Radar Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
Answer: a
Explanation: Infrared Sensor is used in line following robots. These line following robots follow a path which is made by black strips or tapes. These robots use a bunch of infrared sensors which makes them work accurately.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid State Electronics”.
1. Which is not a solid state device?
a) Mother board
b) Integrated circuit
c) Hard disc
d) Flash memory
Answer: c
Explanation: Hard disc is not a solid state device. Solid state device is the one which does not have any moving part. Hard drives have a moving drive head and a disc which rotates while reading or writing the data into the drive.
2. When was flash memory invented?
a) Early 1980’s
b) Early 1970’s
c) Late 1990’s
d) Late 1970’s
Answer: a
Explanation: Flash memory was invented early 1980’s. It was developed by Masuoka Fujio. He was a Japanese engineer working at Toshiba Corporation. He was working on the alternatives of existing data storage devices such as floppy and magnetic drives.
3. What is the full form of SATA?
a) Stable allowed technology attachment
b) Serial allowed technology attachment
c) Stable advanced technology attachment
d) Serial advanced technology attachment
Answer: d
Explanation: The full form of SATA is Serial advanced technology attachment. It is an interface that is commonly used in most of the mass storage device to connect it to the mother board. It transforms and controls the data flow form mass storage device.
4. Which is not a solid state device?
a) TV set
b) Speakers
c) Digital watches
d) Analog Watch
Answer: d
Explanation: Analog Watch is not a solid state device. Solid state device is the one which does not have any moving part. Analog Watch have several moving parts such as a small motor which works on battery that keeps the arms of the clock in motion.
5. RAM is a solid state device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM is a solid state device. RAM does not have any part which is in motion. It contains small micro chips which stores the data and also provides fast retrieval of data.
6. Jump drive and flash drives are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Jump drive and flash drives are the same. These are two different names given to same memory storage unit. They are commonly used as pen drives. It is a solid state device that has no moving parts and it can also store huge amount of data.
7. What is the full form of SSD in terms of data storage?
a) Solid State Device
b) Semi Solid Drive
c) Solid State Drive
d) Semi Solid Device
Answer: c
Explanation: Solid State Drive is the full form of SSD in terms of data storage. It has storage capacity equal to the hard drives but it does not have any moving part. Since it has no moving part, this makes it function faster and power consumption is also less.
8. When was first SSD made?
a) 1976
b) 1978
c) 1945
d) 1947
Answer: a
Explanation: First SSD was invented in the year 1976. It was released by “Dataram” and was named as “BULK CORE”. It was bulky and first of its kind. It had a storage memory of 2 MB .
9. What is the full form of PATA?
a) Parallely allowed technology attachment
b) Parallel allowed technology attachment
c) Parallely advanced technology attachment
d) Parallel advanced technology attachment
Answer: d
Explanation: The full form of PATA is Parallel advanced technology attachment. It is an interface that is used to connect hard drives to the computer systems. Today, commonly used interface used in SSD is PCIe connection.
10. Which is an example flash memory?
a) Nvidia 1650
b) SST26WF040B-104I/SN
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) Nvidia 1650 ti
Answer: b
Explanation: SST26WF040B-104I/SN is an example flash memory. It is developed by “MICROCHIP TECHNOLOGY”. Nvidia 1650 ti and Nvidia 1650 are examples of graphics card. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor.
11. What was first SSD named?
a) Cat’s Whisker
b) Seagate
c) Bulk core
d) Core Black
Answer: c
Explanation: The first SSD was named as Bulk core. It was made by Dataram. It was invented in the year 1976. It was bulky and can only store 2 MB of data. It did not have any moving part so it consumed very less power.
12. What was first Solid State Device named?
a) Cat’s Whisker
b) Seagate
c) Bulk core
d) Core Black
Answer: a
Explanation: The first Solid State Device was named as Cat’s Whisker. It was made in the year 1906. It was made to detect a radio signal. In this a fine wire was made to move across a solid crystal to detect a radio signal.
13. When was first Solid state device made?
a) 1976
b) 1906
c) 1945
d) 1947
Answer: b
Explanation: First Solid state device was invented in the year 1906. It was named as “Cat’s whisker”. It was made to detect a radio signal. In this a fine wire was made to move across a solid crystal in order to detect a radio signal.
14. Transistor is a solid state device is a solid state device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Transistor is a solid state device is a solid state device. It was invented in the year 1947 by Bell Labs. It is the most widely used semiconductor device used in solid state electronics. It was the first solid state device to be used commercially in 1960’s.
Answer: a
Explanation: Hard disk drive is the full form of HDD in terms of data storage. It is one of the most commonly used storage device used today. It has extremely high storage capacity compared to its size. It can store up-to several Terabytes.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid State Electronic Devices – PN Junction Diode”.
1. How many PN junctions is/are present in a bipolar junction transistor?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
Explanation: A bipolar junction transistor contains 2 PN junctions. If the transistor is NPN type then it contains a P-type semiconductor sandwiched between two N-type semiconductor. If the transistor is PNP type then it contains a N-type semiconductor sandwiched between two P-type semiconductor. In both the cases there are two PN junctions.
2. What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductors?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Negative Ions
d) Positive Ions
Answer: b
Explanation: Holes are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductors. These holes are actually electron vacancies that contain positive charge. The holes are responsible for the conduction in p-type semiconductors.
3. What are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is applied?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Positive Ions
d) Positive and Negative Ions
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive and Negative Ions are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is applied. These Ions are immobile and are accumulated which does not allow the electrons and holes to cross the junction until an external voltage is applied.
4. Which is an example of Schottky diode?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) MBR5H100MFST1G
Answer: d
Explanation: MBR5H100MFST1G is an example of Schottky diode. Schottky diodes are most common PN junction diodes used in analog electronics. It is a simple diode that contain P and N junction but has a fast switching action and a low forward voltage drop.
5. Ions do not move in a PN junction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ions does not move in a PN junction. They are immobile. They are created due to the absence of charge carriers at a position. If an electron moves from one place to another, then it leaves behind a vacancy which is positively charged. This vacancy is called Positive Ion.
6. When the p-type semiconductor is connected to positive terminal and n-type to negative terminal of a PN junction diode then the diode is said to be reverse biased.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: When the p-type semiconductor is connected to positive terminal and n-type to negative terminal of a PN junction diode then the diode is said to be forward biased. In forward biased configuration the holes start to move towards N type semiconductor and the electrons towards P type semiconductor, this leads to flow of current in the diode.
7. What is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real silicon transistor in forward biased?
a) 0.7 volts
b) 0.8 volts
c) 0.9 volts
d) 0.3 volts
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real silicon transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential difference makes the PN junction between base and emitter terminal in forward biased.
8. Which is an example of PN junction diode?
a) Light Emitting Diode
b) Light dependent resistor
c) Photo Voltaic cell
d) Capacitor
Answer: a
Explanation: Light Emitting Diode is an example of PN junction diode. A layer of Phosphor is added at the junction who is responsible for the glow. Phosphor is a substance that exhibits the phenomenon of luminescence.
9. What are the parameters over which a diode characteristics curve is made?
a) Current and time
b) Voltage and time
c) Current and frequency
d) Voltage and current
Answer: d
Explanation: Voltage and current are the parameters considering which a diode characteristics curve is made. It is voltage versus current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted on .
10. What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductors?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Negative Ions
d) Positive Ions
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrons are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductors. When a potential difference is created across the terminals of semiconductor, the electrons starts to move, these free electrons are responsible for the conduction in N-type semiconductors.
11. What happens when a trivalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor?
a) N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
b) P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
c) PN junction is formed
d) NP junction is formed
Answer: b
Explanation: P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a trivalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor. Holes are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor, whereas electrons are majority charge carriers in N type semiconductors.
12. What happens when a pentavalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor?
a) N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
b) P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
c) PN junction is formed
d) NP junction is formed
Answer: a
Explanation: N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a pentavalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor. Electrons are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor, whereas holes are majority charge carriers in P type semiconductors.
13. Which impurity should be added to pure semiconductor to make a P-type semiconductor?
a) Arsenic
b) Phosphorus
c) Boron
d) Antimony
Answer: c
Explanation: Boron should be added to pure semiconductor to make a P-type semiconductor. P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a trivalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor. Boron is a trivalent compound whereas all others are pentavalent compound.
14. Which impurity should be added to pure semiconductor to make an N-type semiconductor?
a) Gallium
b) Phosphorus
c) Indium
d) Aluminum
Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminum should be added to pure semiconductor to make a N-type semiconductor. N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a pentavalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor. Phosphorus is a pentavalent compound whereas all others are trivalent compound.
15. PN junction can be made by physically joining P type and N type semiconductor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: PN junction cannot be made by physically joining P type and N type semiconductor. Even when P type and N type materials are held firmly then also huge microscopic gaps are present between both the semiconductors which does not allow holes and electrons to pass through it.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid State Electronic Devices – Bipolar Junction Transistors”.
1. A bipolar junction transistor has beta=250 and base current=10micro ampere. What is the collector current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 10 micro ampere
c) 2.5 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Base current=10micro ampere
Beta=250
Since Ic=beta*Ib
Ic=250*10 micro ampere=2.5 milli ampere.
2. What happens to the collector current if the emitter current increases while no base voltage is applied?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No current
d) First increases then decreases
Answer: c
Explanation: When no voltage is provided at the base then no current passes from emitter to collector, so even if very high potential difference is applied at the emitter collector junction, no current flows through it. This configuration is used for switching in various appliances using bipolar junction transistor.
3. Which terminal of the diode is common to the other two terminals of the diode?
a) Base is common to collector and emitter
b) Emitter is common to collector and base
c) Collector is common to base and emitter
d) No terminal is common to any other
Answer: a
Explanation: Base terminal is common to collector and emitter terminal of the diode. A bipolar junction transistor is made by sandwiching base terminal between emitter and collector terminal. If base terminal is made of N type material then both emitter and collector terminal is made of P-type material and vice-versa.
4. Which is an example of bipolar junction transistor?
a) BC547B
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) MBR5H100MFST1G
Answer: a
Explanation: BC547B is an example of bipolar junction transistor. It is most common and widely used NPN transistor. It is small, cheap, uses less power and fulfills most of the requirement for general purpose use.
5. In bipolar junction transistors both electron and holes are responsible for conduction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In bipolar junction transistors both electron and holes are responsible for conduction. The term “bipolar” itself mean two polarities which represents that both charged particle are responsible for the conduction in the bipolar junction transistor.
6. Three PN junctions is present in a bipolar junction transistor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A bipolar junction transistor has 2 PN junctions. First PN junction is between the base emitter terminal and second PN junction is between base collector terminal. A base is always between emitter and collector.
7. What is the minimum voltage required to make base emitter junction of a real silicon bipolar junction transistor in forward biased?
a) 0.7 volts
b) 1.8 volts
c) 2.3 volts
d) 0.3 volts
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the base emitter junction of a real silicon bipolar junction transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential difference between base and emitter terminal makes the PN junction in forward biased.
8. When bipolar junction transistor acts as an amplifier?
a) When base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is reverse bias
b) When base emitter terminal is reverse biased and base collector terminal is reverse bias
c) When base emitter terminal is reverse biased and base collector terminal is forward bias
d) When base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is forward bias
Answer: a
Explanation: Bipolar junction transistor acts as an amplifier when base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is reverse biased. There is a transfer of resistance from low resistance to high resistance while the current remains same, and since V=IR, the voltage gets amplified.
9. What are the parameters over which transfer characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made in common emitter configuration?
a) Emitter Current and time
b) Emitter Voltage and time
c) Collector Current and frequency
d) Collector to Emitter Voltage and Collector current
Answer: d
Explanation: Collector to Emitter Voltage and Collector current are the parameters considering which transfer characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made. It is voltage versus current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted on .
10. What are the parameters over which Input characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made in common emitter configuration?
a) Emitter Current and time
b) Emitter to base Voltage and time
c) Collector Current and frequency
d) Base to Emitter Voltage and base current
Answer: d
Explanation: Base to Emitter Voltage and base current are the parameters considering which input characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made. It is voltage versus current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted on .
11. A bipolar junction transistor has beta=100 and base current= 8 micro ampere. What is the collector current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.8 micro ampere
c) 0.8 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
Answer: c
Explanation: Given;
Base current = 8 micro ampere
Beta=100
Since Ic=beta*Ib
Ic=100*8 micro ampere=0.8 milli ampere.
12. A bipolar junction transistor has collector current=1.3 milli ampere and emitter current=1.5 milli ampere. What is the base current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.2 micro ampere
c) 0.2 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
Answer: c
Explanation: Given;
Collector current =1.3 milli ampere
Emitter current =1.5 milli ampere
Since Ie=Ic+Ib
Therefore Ib=Ie-Ic.
Ib=1.5 mA-1.3 => 0.2 milli ampere
13. A bipolar junction transistor has emitter current=1.6 milli ampere and collector current=1.47 milli ampere. What is the base current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.13 microampere
c) 0.8 milli ampere
d) 0.13 milli ampere
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Collector current=1.47 milli ampere
Emitter current=1.6 milli ampere
Since Ie=Ic+Ib
Therefore Ib=Ie-Ic.
Ib=1.6-1.47 => 0.13 milli ampere
14. What is the value of current gain where emitter current=1.6 milli ampere; collector current=1.5 milli ampere and base current=0.1 milli ampere?
a) 3.1
b) 0.937
c) 0.8
d) 0.31
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Collector current=1.5 milli ampere
Emitter current=1.6 milli ampere
Base current=0.1 milli ampere
Since: current gain=Ic/Ie
Therefore current gain=1.5/1.6 => 0.937
15. What is the value of current gain where emitter current=2 milli ampere; collector current=1.9 milli ampere and base current=0.1 milli ampere?
a) 1.5
b) 0.937
c) 80
d) 150
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Collector current=1.59 milli ampere
Emitter current=1.6 milli ampere
Base current=0.01milliampere
Since: Voltage gain=Ic/Ib
Therefore; Voltage gain=1.5/0.01 => 150
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid State Electronic Devices – Field Effect Transistor”.
1. Which is the majority charge carrier in N-channel JFET?
a) Electrons
b) Negative ions
c) Holes
d) Positive ions
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrons are the majority charge carrier in N-channel JFET. The channel formed is in between source and drain which are made of p-type semiconductor material. For conduction between source and drain, a potential difference is created across the gate terminal which forms a n-channel between source and drain.
2. Which type of channel is formed, between P-type source, N-type substrate and P-type drain terminal, when a positive voltage is applied on the gate terminal of an enhancement type MOSFET?
a) P-channel
b) N-channel
c) No channel
d) Half N channel half P channel
Answer: b
Explanation: N-channel is formed, between P-type source, N-type substrate and P-type drain terminal, when a positive voltage is applied on the gate terminal of an enhancement type MOSFET. When the positive voltage is applied on the gate terminal, it attracts all the electrons from the N-type substrate and forms a N-channel between source and drain.
3. What are the three terminals of JFET?
a) Source, Drain and Base
b) Emitter, Base and Collector
c) Source, Drain and Gate
d) Emitter, Base and Drain
Answer: c
Explanation: The three terminals of JFET are Source, Drain and Gate. The P-channel JFET has a heavily doped gate of N-type and lightly doped channel of p-type. The N-channel JFET has heavily doped gate of P-type and lightly doped channel of N-type.
4. How many terminals does a MOSFET have?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: c
Explanation: MOSFET has four terminals. These terminals are namely Source, drain, gate and substrate. The source and drain are heavily doped which can be either of P-type or N-type material and the substrate in lightly doped of either N-type or P-type material respectively.
5. When a negative voltage is applied on the gate terminal, a N channel is formed between N-type source, P-type substrate and N-type drain terminal of an enhancement type MOSFET.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: When a negative voltage is applied on the gate terminal, a P channel is formed between N-type source, P-type substrate and N-type drain terminal. When the negative voltage is applied on the gate terminal, it attracts all the holes from the P-type substrate and forms a p-channel between source and drain.
6. Enhancement and depletion type are the two types of metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Enhancement and depletion type are the two types of metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. In enhancement type MOSFET no prior channel is inbuilt; a voltage must be applied so as to build the channel. In depletion type MOSFET a channel is already built, even without applying any external voltage.
7. MOSFET stands for ____
a) Metal Oxidized Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
b) Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
c) Metallic Oxidized Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
d) Metal Oxide Superconductor Field Effect Transistor
Answer: b
Explanation: MOSFET stands for “Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor”. It is a type of Field Effect Transistor that has a insulated gate for which it is also called as insulated gate field effect transistor. The voltage of the gate determines the electrical conductivity of the device.
8. IRF9540N 8mm in an example of which type of transistor?
a) Junction field effect transistor
b) Bipolar junction transistor
c) Metal oxide field effect transistor
d) NPN transistor
Answer: c
Explanation: IRF9540N 8mm in an example of Metal oxide field effect transistor. It has very fast switching speed and works on advanced techniques to achieve very low resistance per silicon area.
9. Field effect transistor is a _______ controlled device.
a) Current
b) Inductance
c) Voltage
d) Resistance
Answer: c
Explanation: Field effect transistor is a voltage controlled device. It is so because the output characteristics of these transistors depend on the field and the filed generated depends on the voltage. Where as bipolar junction transistors is a current control device.
10. Which is the majority charge carrier in P-channel JFET?
a) Electrons
b) Negative ions
c) Holes
d) Positive ions
Answer: c
Explanation: Holes are the majority charge carrier in P-channel JFET. The channel formed is in between source and drain which are made of n-type semiconductor material. For conduction between source and drain, a potential difference is created across the gate terminal which forms a p-channel between source and drain.
11. What is the transconductance of an n-channel JFET if its gate to source voltage is -3Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and no bias drain current is 2miliAmpere?
a) 2mA/V
b) 6mA/V
c) 4mA/V
d) 8mA/V
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage=-3Volts
Pinch-off voltage=-1 volts
No bias drain current=2mA
Transconductance={/Vp)}*{1-}
Transconductance={/-1V)}*{1-}=>8mA/V
12. What will be the transconductance of an n-channel JFET if Gate to source voltage is equal to Pinch-off voltage?
a) 1mA/V
b) 0mA/V
c) -1mA/V
d) 2mA/V
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage = Pinch-off voltage
Transconductance={/Vp)}*{1-}
Transconductance={/Vp)}*{1-} [Since Vgs = Vp] Transconductance=0 mA/V
13. What is the no bias drain to source current of an n-channel JFET if its gate to source voltage is -2Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and transconductance is 2mA/V?
a) 1mA/V
b) 6mA/V
c) 2mA/V
d) 1mA
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage = -2Volts
Pinch-off voltage = -1 volts
Transconductance = 2mA/V
Transconductance = {/Vp)}*{1-}
2mA/V={/-1)}*{1-}
No bias drain current = 1mA
14. What is the drain current of an n-channel JFET if its gate to source voltage is -2Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and no bias drain current is 1miliampere?
a) -15mA
b) 6mA
c) 2mA
d) -8mA
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage = -4Volts
Pinch-off voltage = -1volts
No bias drain current = 1mA
From Shockleys equation we know; Drain current =*{1- 2 }
Drain current =*{1- 2 }=>-15mA
15. What is the no bias drain to source current of an n-channel JFET if its gate to source voltage is -3Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and drain current is -24 miliampere?
a) 5mA
b) 16mA
c) 3mA
d) 8mA
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage = -3Volts
Pinch-off voltage = -1volts
Drain current = -24 miliampere
From Shockleys equation we know; Drain current =*{1- 2 }
-24 = *{1- 2 }
Idss = 3 milliampere
This set of Mechatronics written test Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid State Electronic Devices – Thyristors”.
1. How many layers and junctions does an SCR have?
a) Four layers and three junctions
b) Three layers and four junctions
c) Three layers and three junctions
d) Four layers and four junctions
Answer: a
Explanation: An SCR has four layers and three junctions. The layers are the p-n-p-n layer and there are three p-n junctions. There are three terminals named as anode, cathode and the gate terminal. The other options mentioned above are incorrect.
2. An SCR is a ____
a) semiconductor device
b) full conductor device
c) inductor device
d) bidirectional device
Answer: a
Explanation: SCR is a Semiconductor device. It is made up of silicon. As the conduction takes place only in a single direction, an SCR is a unidirectional device. The other options are incorrect.
3. An SCR is a bidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In an SCR, the conduction takes place in a single direction, therefore the SCR is called as a unidirectional device. It is also called a Semiconductor device as it is made up of silicon.
4. The SCR is controlled through ____
a) anode
b) cathode
c) gate
d) anode and cathode
Answer: c
Explanation: The SCR is controlled through the gate. It is a current controlled device. The anode is always positive with respect to the cathode and the direction of forwarding voltage is from anode to cathode.
5. What is the relation between the firing angle of SCR and the output?
a) Directly proportional to each other
b) Inversely proportional to each other
c) Independent of each other
d) Both are zero
Answer: b
Explanation: The relation between the firing angle of SCR and the output is that they are inversely proportional to each other. The output of the SCR decreases when the firing angle is increased and vice versa.
6. Gate loses control when the SCR starts conducting.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Gate loses control when the SCR starts conducting. The SCR is controlled through the gate. Once the SCR is triggered, the gate loses control over it. The gate is only used to trigger the device.
7. What is the use of Fast acting current limiting fuses?
a) To protect SCR from over current
b) To turn on SCR
c) To increase the flow of current
d) To stop the current
Answer: a
Explanation: The fast acting current limiting fuses are used to limit the value of the current and thus they are used to protect the SCR from over current and surge currents. The other options are not accurate answers.
8. What are the main components used in a snubber circuit?
a) Resistors
b) Capacitors
c) Transistors
d) Resistors and Capacitors
Answer: d
Explanation: The main components used in a snubber circuit are resistors and capacitors. They are generally used to suppress the voltage spikes. In most of the snubber circuits, the resistors and the capacitors are connected in series.
9. An SCR is a ____
a) N-P-N device
b) N-P-N-P device
c) P-N-P-N device
d) P-N-P device
Answer: c
Explanation: An SCR is a P-N-P-N type device. The layers are the p-n-p-n layer and there are three p-n junctions. There are three terminals named as anode, cathode and the gate terminal. The other options mentioned above are incorrect.
10. Which among the following are not the parts of SCR?
a) Anode
b) Cathode
c) Gate
d) Base
Answer: d
Explanation: An SCR has three terminals anode, cathode and gate. It does not consist of a base. It has four layers and three junctions. As the conduction takes place only in a single direction, an SCR is a unidirectional device.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Solid State Electronic Devices – DIAC”.
1. How many minimum thyristors are required to make a TRIAC ?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
Explanation: 2 thyristors are required to make a TRIAC . These thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction. Their gates are made common, which makes it a 3 terminal device.
2. How many terminals does a DIAC have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC is a 2 terminal device. It has got two zener diodes connected back to back which forms a DIAC . The two terminals are anode terminals in a PNPN DIAC .
3. What are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is applied?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Positive Ions
d) Positive and Negative Ions
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive and Negative Ions are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is applied. These Ions are immobile and are accumulated which does not allow the electrons and holes to cross the junction until an external voltage is applied.
4. Which is an example of DIAC?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) NTE6408
d) EddyNCDT 3301
Answer: c
Explanation: NTE6408 is an example of DIAC. OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
5. DIAC is a unidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC is a not a unidirectional device, it is a bidirectional device. It is a thyristor that can be switched on in both polarities. It is mainly used in activating TRIAC .
6. DIAC can act as AC switch.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC can act as AC switch. It is one of the major application of DIAC . It is also extensively used to assist the triggering action of TRIAC when used as a switch.
7. What is the breakdown voltage of three layered DIAC ?
a) Approximately 30 volts
b) Approximately 20 volts
c) Approximately 50 volts
d) Approximately 40 volts
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real silicon transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential difference makes the PN junction between base and emitter terminal in forward biased.
8. How many layers of semiconductor does a DIAC have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: A DIAC is a 4 layered semiconductor device. It has alternating P-type and N-type semiconductor fused together. Together these 4 layers form up a DIAC .
9. What is the full form of SIDAC?
a) Silicon diode for alternating current
b) Silicate diode for alternating current
c) Silicon dioxide for alternating current
d) Silicon diode for analogous current
Answer: a
Explanation: SIDAC stands for Silicon diode alternating current. It is a member of thyristor family that has 5 layers of n-type and p-type semiconductor layers fused together. They are used for switchimg and triggering pupose.
10. A SIDAC does not conduct below a break-over voltage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A SIDAC does not conduct below a break-over voltage. There is some specified voltage which has to be crossed by the input voltage, in order to make the SIDAC work. Further it does not depend on voltage.
11. DIAC starts to conduct current after some threshold voltage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC starts to conduct current after some threshold voltage. It starts to conduct current only when the input voltage crosses the breakdown voltage. It is also extensively used to assist the triggering action of TRIAC when used as a switch.
12. DIAC’s get damaged when voltage of wrong polarity is applied at its terminals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC’s does get damage when voltage of wrong polarity is applied at the terminals. They are bidirectional device, that is they do not have fixed anode and cathode terminals. They work the same even if the polarity is changed.
13. What is the full form of DIAC?
a) Diode for alternating current
b) Diode attenuating current
c) Dioxide for analogous current
d) Diode analogous current
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC stands for Diode for alternating current. It only conducts current when the applied voltage crosses breakdown voltage. DIAC is a 2 terminal device. It has got two zener diodes connected back to back which forms a DIAC.
14. What is the full form of TRIAC?
a) Triode attenuating current
b) Triode for alternating current
c) Trioxide for analogous current
d) Triode analogous current
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC stands for Triode for alternating current. 2 thyristors are required to make a TRIAC. It is a three terminal device. The thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction and their gates are made common.
15. DIAC’s do not work with DC voltage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC’s do work with DC voltage. But it shows different behaviours with the DC voltage. IT works exactly same as the Shockley’s diode. A Shockley diode is a four layered, unidirectional diode composed of alternating N type and P type material.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “ Solid State Electronic Devices – TRIAC ”.
1. How many minimum thyristors make up a TRIAC ?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
Explanation: 2 thyristors make up a TRIAC . These thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction. Their gates are made common, which makes it a 3 terminal device.
2. How many terminals does a TRIAC have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: TRIAC is a 3 terminal device. It has got two thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction which forms a TRIAC . The third terminal is the common gate o these thyristors.
3. How many doped regions do a standard TRIAC have?
a) 1
b) 6
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: A standard TRIAC has 6 doped regions. The gate terminal makes ohmic contact between p-type and N-type materials. The other two terminals are similar therefore there is no specific anode and cathode terminal.
4. Which is an example of TRIAC?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) BT136
d) EddyNCDT 3301
Answer: c
Explanation: BT136 is an example of TRIAC. OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
5. TRIAC is a unidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC is not an unidirectional device, it is a bidirectional device. The TRIAC can be operated from any polarity on its input. It is also a bipolar device.
6. TRIAC can act as AC switch.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: TRIAC can act as AC switch. It is one of the major application of TRIAC . It can perform switching action at high voltage levels and high current levels. It is widely used in power switching.
7. TRIAC is unipolar device.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC is not a unipolar device. It is a bipolar device. It uses both electrons and holes for the conduction of current through it. This is why it is called bipolar device.
8. How many layers of semiconductor does a TRIAC have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: A TRIAC is a 4 layered semiconductor device. It has three terminals and it is bidirectional. It is widely used in power electronics for control purpose.
9. What is the full form of SCR?
a) Silicon controlled rectifier
b) Silicate controlled rectifier
c) Silicon controlled rectification
d) Silicon controlling rectification
Answer: a
Explanation: SCR stands for Silicon controlled rectifier. It is a unidirectional device and has 4 layers of semiconductors fused together. The current through it flows in one direction only.
10. A TRIAC cannot perform switching action on DC voltage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A TRIAC can perform switching action on DC voltage. It can turn on like a switch, but it further it cannot be turned off. It is because the current and voltage across it is very low.
This set of Mechatronics Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Solid State Electronic Devices – Light Emitting Diode and Optical Isolation”.
1. Who developed the first Light emitting diode?
a) Nick brown
b) Nick Holonyak
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Billy Stern
Answer: b
Explanation: The first LED was developed by Nick Holonyak in the year 1962. He is a 91 year old American engineer and educator, widely known for his work on Light emitting diodes and was the first one to create the first visible LED.
2. Who was/were awarded with noble prize in physics in the year 2014 for the invention of blue light emitting diodes?
a) Hiroshi Amano
b) Nick Holonyak
c) Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano
d) Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano and Shuji Nakamura
Answer: d
Explanation: The noble prize in physics in the year 2014 was awarded to a trio scientists of United states and japan, Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano and Shuji Nakamura for the invention of blue light emitting diodes.
3. Which alloy is used for green blue and white LED’s?
a) InGaN
b) GaAs
c) Aluminum gallium indium phosphide
d) TiO2
Answer: a
Explanation: InGaN alloy is used for green blue and white LED’s. Colour emitted by an LED depends on the type of Semiconductor materials used and also the proportion of the semiconductors used in the alloy.
4. Which alloy is used for red, orange and yellow LED’s?
a) InGaN
b) GaAs
c) Aluminum gallium indium phosphide
d) TiO2
Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminum gallium indium phosphidealloy is used for red, orange and yellow LED’s. Colour emitted by an LED depends on the type of Semiconductor materials used and also the proportion of the semiconductors used in the alloy.
5. Recombination of charge carriers in an LED, releases some energy which comes out in the form of light.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Recombination of charge carriers in an LED, releases some energy which comes out in the form of light. The energy emitted by the recombination of charge carriers hits a layer of phosphor, this phosphor shows the properties of luminescence when charged, which is emitted in the form of visible light.
6. Opto-isolator uses a source of light for transmission, most commonly “near infrared light emitting diodes”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Opto-isolator uses a source of light for transmission, most commonly “near infrared light emitting diodes”. An opto-isolator transmits signals through this source of light which passes through an isolated dielectric channel and is finally fetched by the photosensor.
7. LASER stands for ____
a) Light amplification by systematic emission of radiation
b) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
c) Light absorption by stimulated emission of radiation
d) Low amplification by stimulating emitted radiation
Answer: b
Explanation: LASER stands for “Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Laser or laser diodes are similar to the light emitting diodes as it directly produces light when voltage is applied across the terminals. The difference is that the light which it radiates is amplified by stimulated emission.
8. Which is a type of Opto-isolator?
a) CMCP793V-500
b) MOC3021
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
Answer: b
Explanation: MOC3021 is a type of Opto-isolator. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. MPU 6050 is a 6 axis gyroscope and accelerometer. L298N is a motor driver with dual-H bridge.
9. Optical isolator is also called as ________
a) Opaque isolator
b) Optical coupling
c) Optocoupler
d) Optical resistor
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical isolator is also called as Optocoupler. Optical isolator’s are devices that transfer electrical signals between two isolated circuit by using light. They prevent damages to the system due to very high input voltage.
10. Which electromagnetic rays is emitted GaAs LED’s ?
a) Infrared
b) Visible light
c) Ultraviolet
d) Radio
Answer: a
Explanation: Light emitting diodes made of Gallium arsenide alloy emits infrared rays or infrared light. The wavelength of the emitted rays is in the range of 850 nano-meters to 940 nano-meters.
11. Who is known as the father of fibre optics?
a) Nick brown
b) Nick Holonyak
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Narinder Singh Kapany
Answer: d
Explanation: Narinder Singh Kapany is known as the father of fibre optics. This title is given to him for his amazing work towards fibre optics. He is an Indian born American physicist who was also a former Indian Ordnance Factories Service officer.
12. Which layer is just present above core that protects the light from going outside?
a) Core
b) Cladding
c) Coating
d) Mine
Answer: b
Explanation: Cladding is just present above core that protects the light from going outside. It is made up optically transparent material with higher refractive index than that of core, which results the light to bounce due to total internal reflection.
13. Which layer is just present above cladding that protects the optical fibre from physical damage?
a) Core
b) Cladding
c) Coating
d) Cover
Answer: c
Explanation: Coating is just present above cladding that protects the optical fibre from physical damage. They are usually made up of optically opaque materials. No light can pass through it either from inside or outside.
14. What is the working principle of optical fiber?
a) Total internal refraction
b) Total internal reflection
c) Lenz Law
d) Brine theory
Answer: b
Explanation: The optical fiber works on the principle of Total internal reflection. It occurs when the angle of incidence of the incoming light ray is greater than the critical angle. It occurs when the light travels between two mediums of different refractive index.
Answer: a
Explanation: The critical angle in total internal reflection depends on the colour of the incident light. Different lights of different colours have different wavelengths and therefore the refractive index changes, so ultimately the critical angle also changes.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Signal Conditioner”.
1. What is the full form of FIR in terms of signal filtering?
a) Finite impulse response
b) Finite impulse reduction
c) Finite impulse recombination
d) Filthy impulse response
Answer: a
Explanation: FIR in terms of signal filtering stands for Finite impulse response. It is a digital filter. The Impulse response of this filter is of a certain finite duration. The response settles to zero after some time.
2. Which frequency is attenuated in a Low-Pass filter?
a) High frequency
b) Low frequency
c) Mid-Range frequency
d) No frequency
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Low pass filter, High frequency is attenuated. It passes the frequencies only of Low-range and the frequency of high range is attenuated. The range may differ from filter to filter used for this purpose.
3. Which filter contains entirely passive elements?
a) Electrical filter
b) Mechanical filter
c) Digital filter
d) Optical filter
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrical filter contains entirely passive elements. These passive elements include resistors, inductors and capacitors. Electric filters were originally made from a combination of these passive elements.
4. Which is a signal generator module?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) AD9850
d) EddyNCDT 3301
Answer: c
Explanation: AD9850 is a signal generator module. It can generate Sine signal. OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is an Eddy currents sensor.
5. A system is said to be causal if its output depends on the future inputs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A system is said to be causal if its output does not depends on the future inputs. It is said to be causal only if it depends on the present and past inputs. If a system depends on the future input then the system is said to be non causal.
6. Capacitor can be used for signal filtering.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitor can be used for signal filtering. Capacitor is a device which stores charge. It can be used as a filter because it does not allow Direct current to pass through it, it only allows alternating current to pass through it.
7. Which family of filter has maximum flat frequency response?
a) Chebyshev filter
b) Bessel filter
c) Elliptic filter
d) Butterworth filter
Answer: d
Explanation: Butterworth filters have maximum flat frequency response among all other types of filter. Bessel filters have maximum flat phase delay. For a specific order and ripple, Elliptic filter has the steepest cut-off curve. Chebyshev filters show most appropriate ideal response.
8. Which family of filters have maximum flat phase delay?
a) Chebyshev filter
b) Bessel filter
c) Elliptic filter
d) Butterworth filter
Answer: b
Explanation: Bessel filters have maximum flat phase delay. Butterworth filters have maximum flat frequency response among all other types of filter. For a specific order and ripple, Elliptic filter has the steepest cut-off curve. Chebyshev filters show most appropriate ideal response.
9. What is the full form of IIR in terms of signal filtering?
a) Infinite impulse response
b) Infinite impulse reduction
c) Infinite impulse recombination
d) Instant impulse response
Answer: a
Explanation: IIR in terms of signal filtering stands for Infinite impulse response. It is a discrete time filter also known as digital filter. It depends linearly with the number of input samples and a finite number of previous filter inputs.
10. A system is said to be non causal if its present output depends on the future inputs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A system is said to be non causal if its present output depends on the future inputs. In non-causal system the inputs are the future responses of the system. If a system depends on the present and past inputs then the system is said to be causal system.
11. Which signal is obtained after integrating the unit step signal?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: c
Explanation: Ramp Signal is obtained after integrating the unit step signal. Integration of a curve gives the total area under the curve. For a standard unit step signal the value of signal is 0, so integration value is also 0. At index 0, the value of unit step signal is 1 but area under it is 0. So the integrated signal remains 0. But slowly the area under unit step signal increases constantly, so when it is integrated, gives out ramp function or ramp signal with constant slope.
12. Which signal is obtained after integrating the ramp signal ?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: d
Explanation: Parabolic Signal is obtained after integrating the ramp signal. Integration of a curve gives the total area under the curve.
Let us consider a ramp signal, Y=x
So its integration is (x 2 )/2 which clearly a parabolic signal.
13. Which signal is obtained after differentiating the ramp signal?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit Step Signal is obtained after differentiating the ramp signal. Differentiation gives the rate of change of a signal. Since integration and differentiation are reverse function of each other so integrating a unit step function also gives ramp signal back.
14. Which signal is obtained after differentiating the unit step signal?
a) UnitImpulse signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: a
Explanation: UnitImpulse signal is obtained after differentiating the unit step signal. Differentiation gives the rate of change of a signal. Since the only change occurs at point 0 in unit step signal so the differentiation of unit step signal becomes unit impulse signal at point 0.
15. Derivative of a unit step signal is zero everywhere.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Derivative of a unit step signal is not zero everywhere. It is 0 at all points except at X=0 in XY plane. Differentiation gives the rate of change of a signal. Since the only change occurs at point 0 in unit step signal so the differentiation of unit step signal becomes unit impulse signal.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Operational Amplifier”.
1. What is the slew rate of an ideal operational amplifier?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 100
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: The slew rate of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite. Slew rate of an operational amplifier is defined as the rate of change of output voltage with respect to time dv/dt. An ideal operational amplifier takes no time to change the output, therefore dt=0. So dv/dt becomes infinite and hence an ideal operational amplifier has infinite slew rate.
2. What is the open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinite
d) -1
Answer: c
Explanation: The open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite. Open loop gain of an operational amplifier is defined as output voltage divide by input voltage . In ideal case the operational amplifier produces infinite output voltage when very low input voltage is applied.
3. What is the phase difference between input signal and output signal when input is provided to the inverting terminal of the operational amplifier?
a) 0 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 180 degree
d) 45 degree
Answer: c
Explanation: There 180 degree phase difference between input signal and output signal when input is provided to the inverting terminal of the operational amplifier. When input is provided to the negative terminal it adds 180 degree phase shift to the input signal and inverts the input signal, that is why the terminal is also called as inverting terminal.
4. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 9 volt in 18 micro second?
a) 0.5 Volt/microsecond
b) 5 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Change in voltage=9 Volt
Change in time= 18 micro second
Slew rate=dv/dt=9V/18 microsecond=0.5 volt/microsecond
5. A practical operational amplifier has infinite bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A practical operational amplifier does not have infinite bandwidth. It is so because at higher frequency signals the efficiency of amplification starts to decrease. The practical operational amplifier cannot amplify signals with very high frequency. Ideal operational amplifiers have infinite bandwidth.
6.An ideal Operational amplifier should have Infinite output resistance and zero input resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: An ideal Operational amplifier should have zero output resistance and infinite input resistance. Infinite input resistance allows any input signal to drive the operational amplifier and zero output resistance facilitates the operational amplifier to drive infinite number of loads.
7. CMRR stands for ____
a) Common mode rejection ratio
b) Common mains rejection ratio
c) Common mode reluctance ratio
d) Common mode rejection rate
Answer: a
Explanation: CMRR stands for Common mode rejection ratio. It is the ability of the Operational Amplifier to reject the common mode signals in the inverting and non-inverting terminals. It is the ratio of differential voltage gain to common mode voltage gain.
8. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of an operational amplifier?
a) BC541
b) LM741H
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
Explanation: LM741H is most commonly used operational amplifier. It comes in 8-pin TO-99 package with an operating voltage of +15 volt to -15 volt. It provides high voltage gain with a bandwidth of 1.5MHz.
9. PSRR stands for ________
a) Power Supply Relaxation Ratio
b) Power Supply Rejection Rate
c) Power Supply Rejection Ratio
d) Power Supply Rejecting Ratio
Answer: c
Explanation: PSRR stands for Power Supply Rejection Ratio. It is defined as the ratio of change in the input supply voltage to the equivalent output voltage it generates. An ideal operational amplifier has infinite power supply rejection ratio.
10. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has common mode gain=0.5 and differential gain=1200?
a) 600
b) 1200
c) 2400
d) 1200 db
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Common mode gain=0.5
Differential gain=1200
Common mode rejection ratio=differential gain / common mode gain
Ad/Ac=2400.
11. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 6 volt in 12 micro second?
a) 0.5 Volt/microsecond
b) 5 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Change in voltage=6 Volt
Change in time=12 micro second
Slew rate=dv/dt=6V/12 microsecond=0.5 volt/microsecond
12. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 5 volt in 15 micro second?
a) 0.33 Volt/microsecond
b) 3 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Change in voltage=5 Volt
Change in time=15 micro second
Slew rate=dv/dt=5V/15 microsecond=0.33 volt/microsecond
13. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has common mode gain=0.2 and differential gain=1300?
a) 650
b) 6500
c) 2400
d) 1200 db
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Common mode gain=0.5
Differential gain=1200
Common mode rejection ratio=differential gain/common mode gain
Ad/Ac=6500.
14. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has common mode gain=0.6 and differential gain=1000?
a) 650
b) 6500
c) 1666.66
d) 1200 db
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Common mode gain=0.6
Differential gain=1000
Common mode rejection ratio=differential gain / common mode gain
Ad/Ac=1666.66.
15. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as /.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Common mode rejection ratio is defined as / . It is the ability of the Operational Amplifier to reject the common mode signals in the inverting and non-inverting terminals.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Noise Reduction”.
1. Which noise is also termed as multiplicative noise?
a) Gaussian Noise
b) Salt and pepper noise
c) Speckle noise
d) Linear noise
Answer: c
Explanation: Speckle noise is also termed as multiplicative noise. It occurs when some unwanted signal gets multiplied with the original signal during its transmission, receiving or during an other signal processing.
2. Who invented median filter?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Pitas
c) Charles young
d) Charles wheatstone
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitas invented median filter. It was developed in the year 1990. Median filters are widely used to remove speckle and pulse noises. It is a robust filter which is also used for image smoothers in variety of application.
3. Which filter should be used to remove speckle noise from an image?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Gaussian filter
d) Weiner filter
Answer: d
Explanation: Weiner filter should be used to remove speckle noise from an image. It is most suitable filter for this purpose. Speckle noise generally degrades the quality of image taken from SAR or medical ultrasound.
4. Which filter should be used to remove salt and pepper noise from an image?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Gaussian filter
d) Weiner filter
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter should be used to remove salt and pepper noise from an image. It is most suitable filter for this purpose. Morphological filters can also be used. Both the filters provide maximum noise reduction.
5. Mean filter is better than median filter.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter is better than mean filter. It is better because it does not create random and unrealistic pixel values on its own. It creates the pixel value which is actually present in the neighbourhood. It can preserve sharp image better than the mean filters.
6. Noise reduction technique is only applicable for audio and other time varying signals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise reduction technique is not only applicable for audio and other time varying signals but also applicable for an image. The main aim of noise reduction technique is removing the unwanted signals and unwanted pixel intensity from audio and image respectively.
7. What is the full form of FPGA in terms of signal filtering and noise reduction technique?
a) Functionally programmable gate array
b) Function programmed gate array
c) Field programmable gate array
d) Field programmable gateway array
Answer: c
Explanation: FPGA in terms of signal filtering and noise reduction technique stands for Field programmable gate array. It can be used for removing the noise from the signal. It can contain thousands or millions of logic gates with programmable interconnections.
8. Which type of signal facilitates easier noise removal?
a) Digital Signal
b) Analog Signal
c) Random Signal
d) Sine Signal
Answer: a
Explanation: Digital Signal facilitates easier noise removal. It is easier so because in digital signal there is fixed magnitude of signal. The unwanted signal can be easily identified by their different magnitudes at different time intervals.
9. What is the full form of IIR in terms of signal filtering and noise reduction technique?
a) Infinite impulse response
b) Infinite impulse reduction
c) Infinite impulse recombination
d) Imperfect impulse response
Answer: a
Explanation: IIR in terms of signal filtering stands for Infinite impulse response. It is a digital filter. The Impulse response of this filter depends upon finite number of inputs and finite number of previous outputs of the filter. It is a combination of FIR and previous output of the filter.
10. Which is an example of Power line filter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
Answer: d
Explanation: FN2060A-6-06 is an example of Power line filter. It is developed by Schaffner to attenuate frequencies between an electronic component and an external line. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Who invented wiener filter?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Robert Wiener
c) Charles young
d) Charles wheatstone
Answer: a
Explanation: Norbert wiener invented wiener filter. The theory behind this filter was proposed by Norbert Wiener in the 1940’s. It was later published in the year 1949. This theory is often called as Wiener–Kolmogorov filtering theory because of significant work of Andrew Kolmogorov behind this.
12. Median filter removes the sharp edges from an image.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter does not remove the sharp edges from an image. It preserves those edges better than anyone else. Unlike mean filters it does not create unrealistic pixel values that will reduce the quality and sharpness of image.
13. Low pass filters removes the sharpness of an image.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Low pass filters removes the sharpness of an image. It is a major disadvantage of low pass filters. For preserving the sharpness, generally median filters are used. Low pass filters blur the sharp edges.
14. Which noise is caused by voltage spikes?
a) Gaussian Noise
b) Salt and pepper noise
c) Impulse noise
d) Linear noise
Answer: c
Explanation: Impulse noise is caused by voltage spikes. These noises can cause error in the circuits used for data transmission. It can be tolerated by some circuits but can also cause trouble for other. Median filters are used to handle these types of noises.
15. Which filter should be used to remove impulse noises?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Gaussian filter
d) Weiner filter
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter should be used to remove impulse noises. It is most suitable filter and is widely used for this purpose. It is reliable as it removes the noises without damaging the desired edge details.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Bridge Circuits – 1”.
1. Who invented wheatstone bridge?
a) Samuel wheatstone
b) Charles Wheatstone
c) Charles manes
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
Answer: d
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge was invented by Samuel Hunter Christie. He was the one behind the concept which was further developed and popularised by Charles Wheatstone. After whome it was named as wheatstone bridge.
2. Why wheatstone bridge is generally used in DC ciruit?
a) To determine resistance
b) To determine capacitance
c) To determine inductance
d) To determine flux
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit. It creates a balanced bridge of 4 resistors in which the ratio of two resistance of specific side is equal to the ratio of the other two sides.
3. What should be the value of Rv, for the bridge to be balanced?
a) 3 ohm
b) 2 ohm
c) 6 ohm
d) 1 ohm
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
R1=3 ohm
R3=6 ohm
R4=2 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
Ra/R3=3/6=>1/2
Therefore Rv/R4=1/2
Rv/2=1/2
Rv=1ohm
4. Who invented Wien bridge?
a) Samuel Wein
b) Max Wein
c) Charles wheatstone
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
Answer: b
Explanation: Wien bridge was invented by Max Wein. It was developed in 1891. A Wien bridge consists of 4 resistors and 2 capacitors. This bridge is used to determine unknown capacitance in terms of resistance and frequency.
5. In a balanced wheatstone bridge, maximum current passes through galvanometer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a balanced wheatstone bridge, no current passes through galvanometer. In a balanced wheat stone bridge there are 4 resistors in which the ratio of two resistance of specific side is equal to the ratio of the other two sides. In this condition no current flows through the galvanometer connected at two opposite vertices.
6. Wheatstone bridge can be used to calculate capacitance in AC circuits.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge can be used to calculate capacitance in AC circuits. Wheat stone bridges are generally used to calculate the overall impedance of the AC circuits. It can also be used to calculate inductance as well as dissipation factor in an AC circuit.
7. Wheatstone bridge with high DC input cannot be balanced.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge with high DC input can be balanced. Balancing of wheatstone bridge does not depend upon the DC input, it totally depends on the value of resistors that we are using in the circuit. Therefore irrespective of the input, the bridge can be balanced.
8. What is the deflection in galvanometer?
a) 90 degree deflection
b) 180 degree deflection
c) No deflection
d) 45 degree deflection
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
R1=3ohm
R3=9 ohm
R4=6 ohm
Rv=2 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
Ra/R3=3/9=>1/3
Rv/R4=2/6=>1/3
So the circuit is balanced, therefore no current will flow through the galvanometer. So there will be no deflection in the galvanometer.
9. What is will happen to the light?
a) Light will flicker
b) Light will glow constantly
c) Light will not glow
d) Light will turn on for 5 second and then turn off
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
R1=3 ohm
R3=9 ohm
R4=6 ohm
Rv=2 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
Ra/R3=2/8=>1/4
Rv/R4=1/4
So the circuit is balanced, therefore no current will flow through the branch containing the light, therefore the light will not glow.
10. What should be the value of Rv and R4 for the bridge to be balanced?
a) Rv = 3 ohm, R4 = 4 ohm
b) Rv = 2 ohm, R4 = 4 ohm
c) Rv = 6 ohm, R4 = 5 ohm
d) Rv = 1 ohm, R4 = 7 ohm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
R1=4 ohm
R3=8 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
R1/R3=4/8=>1/2
Therefore Rv/R4 should be 1/2
Rv/R4=1/2 or 2/4
Rv=2 ohm R4 = 4 ohm
11. Who invented Schering Bridge?
a) Samuel Schering
b) Max Schering
c) Charles Wheatstone
d) Harald Schering
Answer: d
Explanation: Schering Bridge was invented by Harald Schering. It is a type of AC bridge. A balanced Schering bridge is independent of frequency change and is used for measuring insulating capacity of cables.
12. Which is a type of DC bridge?
a) Maxwell’s Bridge
b) Hay’s Bridge
c) Wheatstone Bridge
d) Schering Bridge
Answer: c
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is a type of DC bridge. Maxwell’s bridge, Hay’s bridge and Schering bridge are a type AC bridge. Wheatstone bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit.
13. Which is a type of DC bridge?
a) Anderson Bridge
b) Wein Bridge
c) Kelvin Bridge
d) Schering Bridge
Answer: c
Explanation: Kelvin bridge is a type of DC bridge. Anderson bridge, Wein bridge and Schering bridge are a type AC bridge. Kelvin bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit below 1 ohm.
14. Which bridge is also called as Thompson Bridge?
a) Anderson Bridge
b) Wein Bridge
c) Schering Bridge
d) Kelvin Bridge
Answer: d
Explanation: Kelvin bridge is also called as Thompson bridge. It is a type of DC bridge. Kelvin or Thompson bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit below 1 ohm.
Answer: a
Explanation: A galvanometer cannot be used for detecting and balancing AC bridges. It can only be used in DC circuits and bridges. If a galvanometer is placed in an AC circuit then its needle will continuously deflect back and forth and will never be stable.
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This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Bridge Circuits – 2”.
1. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
Answer: c
Explanation: Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. This bridge is a modification of wheatstone bridge. It contains bunch of resistors, capacitors and inductors which when placed at a specific configuration forms a Maxwell bridge.
2. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
Answer: b
Explanation: Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effects of mutual inductance. Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance in DC circuits.
3. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown resistance in DC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance in DC circuits. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effects of mutual inductance.
4. Which bridge is used to measure the effect of mutual inductance among two circuits?
a) Wheatstone bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
Answer: d
Explanation: Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effect of mutual inductance among two circuits Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance in DC circuits.
5. Which bridge can be used to alternate the polarity of an applied voltage?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
Answer: a
Explanation: H-Bridge can be used as a switch to alternate the polarity of an applied voltage. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effects of mutual inductance.
6. How many H-bridges are present in the motor driver of a bipolar stepper motor?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: 2H-bridges are present in the motor driver of a bipolar stepper motor. These stepper motors does not have single long winding like normal DC motors , they are wounded in such a fashion that without an external motor driver, it is very difficult to rotate its shaft.
7. In a Wheatstone bridge if all the resistors are same then the bridge is unbalanced.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a Wheatstone bridge if all the resistors are same then the bridge is balanced. It is so because, for a balanced wheatbridge it is necessary that the ratio of two specific resistance values is equal to the resistance of the other two. In any case, the ratio will always be “1” and same for both the side.
8. Which bridge can be used as a switch?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
Answer: a
Explanation: H-Bridge can be used as a switch. It is generally used in motors drivers and robots which allow accurate and desirable movement of robots and motors. H-bridge can alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching property.
9. Which bridge can be used for providing a DC output from AC input?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Diode bridge circuit
Answer: d
Explanation: Diode bridge circuit can be used for providing a DC output from AC input. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. H-bridge can alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching property.
10. Which bridge can be used to find very small difference in two resistor values?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Carey foster bridge circuit
Answer: d
Explanation: Carey foster bridge circuit can be used to find very small difference in two resistor values. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. H-bridge can alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching property.
11. Vibration galvanometer is used as a detector in AC circuit instead of normal galvanometer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Vibration galvanometer is used as a detector in AC circuit instead of normal galvanometer. Normal galvanometer is used in DC bridge circuit for balancing and detecting. If a normal galvanometer is placed in an AC circuit then its needle will continuously deflect back and forth and will never be stable.
12. Which detector is not used in AC circuit?
a) Tunable amplifier circuit
b) Vibration galvanometers
c) Galvanometers
d) Head phones
Answer: c
Explanation: Galvanometers is not used in AC circuit. Head phones and Vibration galvanometers are used as detectors in AC bridge circuit. Vibration galvanometers are also referred as Tunable amplifier circuit.
13. Which condition is referred as balanced condition of bridge?
a) When the centre Galvanometer detects highest current flow
b) When the centre Galvanometer detects constant current flow
c) When the centre Galvanometer detects no current flow
d) When the centre Galvanometer gets damaged
Answer: c
Explanation: When the centre Galvanometer detects no current flow then condition is referred as balanced condition of bridge. This condition occurs when the potential difference in two specific branches becomes equal.
14. Which DC bridge is used to find very small resistor values, generally below 1 ohm?
a) Maxwell’s Bridge
b) Wheatstone Bridge
c) Kevin Bridge
d) H-Bridge
Answer: d
Explanation: Kevin bridge is used to find very small resistor values, generally below 1 ohm. Wheatstone bridge is also a DC bridge which is used to find resistance but it is suitable for determining larger resistance values.
15. Schering bridge is a DC bridge.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Schering bridge is a not a DC bridge. It is a type of AC Bridge. A balanced Schering bridge is independent of frequency change and is used for measuring insulating capacity of electric cables and measuring the capacitance value of the capacitors.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Current to Voltage Converters”.
1. Which law or equation gives a relationship between voltage and current?
a) Maxwell’s second equation
b) Maxwell’s first equation
c) Lenz Law
d) Ohm’s law
Answer: d
Explanation: Ohm’s law gives a relationship between voltage and current. It states that, at a constant temperature the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it. The proportionality constant is termed as resistance.
2. What is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing through it is 1A?
a) 10V
b) 12V
c) 11V
d) 6V
Answer: b
Explanation: 12V is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing through it is 1A. From the ohm’s law we know that V=I*R, where V is the voltage in volts, I is the current in ampere and R is the resistance in ohm’s. Therefore, the voltage drop will be=>12*1 = 12 volts.
3. Op-Amp in the form of trans-impedance amplifier can be used as current to voltage converter.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Op-Amp in the form of trans-impedance amplifier can be used as current to voltage converter. In this negative feedback is used, because without any feedback the Op-Amp will not work. The input is provided at the inverting terminal and the non inverting terminal is set to ground. The voltage output is taken from the output terminal.
4. What should be the resistance placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts?
a) 2 ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
Answer: a
Explanation: A resistance of 2 ohm should be placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts. From the ohm’s law we know that V=IR, therefore resistance = V/I => 12/6 = 2 ohms.
5. Which integrated circuit can be used as a current to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) LM741
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
Explanation: LM741 Op-Amp integrated circuit can be used as a current to voltage converter. It is an operational amplifier integrated circuit, and its non-inverting configuration can be used for the conversion of current to voltage.
6. Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of current to voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of current to voltage conversion. The output impedance is expected to be low, for driving any device. Op-Amp has very less output impedance which makes it better for current to voltage conversion. Also it has very high input impedance which consumes very less current in the input.
7. What does DAQ stand for?
a) Data Acquisition
b) Data Acquisition quantity
c) Data Acquisition quality
d) Digital Acquisition
Answer: a
Explanation: DAQ stands for Data Acquisition. It is a process by which physical quantities are measured. Physical quantities such as current, voltage etc. can be measured with the help of DAQ systems.
8. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s negative feedback resistance is 20 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 2 if its negative feedback resistance is 20 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input is given at the inverting terminal is given by RF/RI, where RF is feedback resistance and RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain= 20/10 => 2.
9. What should be the resistance placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 24 volts?
a) 2 ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
Answer: c
Explanation: A resistance of 4 ohm should be placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts. From the ohm’s law we know that V=IR, therefore resistance = V/I => 24/6 = 4 ohms.
10. What is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing through it is 2A?
a) 10V
b) 22V
c) 11V
d) 24V
Answer: d
Explanation: 24V is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing through it is 2A. From the ohm’s law we know that V=I*R, where V is the voltage in volts, I is the current in ampere and R is the resistance in ohm’s. Therefore the voltage drop will be =>12*2 = 24 volts.
11. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s negative feedback resistance is 30 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
Answer: b
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 3 if its negative feedback resistance is 30 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input is given at the inverting terminal is given by RF/RI, where RF is feedback resistance and RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain = 30/10 => 3.
12. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s feedback resistance is 30 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
Answer: c
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 4 if its feedback resistance is 30 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input is given at the non-inverting terminal is given by 1+, where RF is feedback resistance and RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain=1+ => 4.
13. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s feedback resistance is 20 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
Answer: b
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 3 if its feedback resistance is 20 ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input is given at the non-inverting terminal is given by 1+, where RF is feedback resistance and RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain=1+ => 3.
14. What should be the resistance placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 3 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts?
a) 2 ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
Answer: c
Explanation: A resistance of 4 ohm should be placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 3 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts. From the ohm’s law we know that V=IR, therefore resistance=V/I => 12/3 = 4 ohms.
15. Who invented direct current?
a) Nicola Tesla
b) Thomas Edison
c) Albert Einstein
d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: b
Explanation: Thomas Edison invented direct current. Direct current is a unidirectional current. It flows when electrons move constantly in a particular direction. By convention the direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of electron flow.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Voltage to Current Converters”.
1. Ohm’s law gives a relation between voltage and resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Ohm’s law does not give relation between voltage and resistance. The ohms law establishes a relationship between voltage and current. Resistance is the proportionality constant. In equation form, ohms law can be expressed as V=I*R, where all variables have their usual meaning.
2. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 12ohm if the voltage drop across a resistor is 4 volts?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 6Ampere
Answer: b
Explanation: 3Ampere current flowing through a resistor of 12ohm if the voltage drop across a resistor is 4 volts. Since we know from the ohm’s law we know that V=IR where V is the voltage drop across the resistor, I is the current flowing through it and R is the resistance value of it, therefore I=V/R, which gives I=>12/4=3ampere.
3. Resistance of a substance does not change if we alter its shape or length.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistance of a substance changes, if we alter its shape or length. Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the substance and inversely proportional to its area. Resistivity of a material remains constant.
4. What should be the resistance placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6ampere from a voltage source of 12volts?
a) 2ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
Answer: a
Explanation: A resistance of 2 ohm should be placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12volts. From the ohm’s law we know that V=IR, therefore resistance=V/I=>12/6=2ohms.
5. Which is a voltage to current converter?
a) BC541
b) XTR111
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
Explanation: XTR111 is a voltage to current converter. It is a very precise voltage to current converter designed by the Texas Instruments. It has an adjustable voltage regulator with a wide output supply range.
6. Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of current to voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of current to voltage conversion. The output impedance is expected to be low, for driving any device. Op-Amp has very less output impedance which makes it better for current to voltage conversion. Also, it has very high input impedance which consumes very less current in the input.
7. What is the ratio of current to the voltage called?
a) Resistivity
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) Impedance
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of current to the voltage is called as conductance. It is the reciprocal of resistance. It is the degree or the measure of how easily the electric current can flow through a substance. Its unit is mho also called as ohm inverse.
8. What is the ratio of voltage to current called?
a) Resistivity
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) Impedance
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of current to the voltage is called as resistance. It is the degree or the measure of opposition of flow of electric current through a substance. Its unit is ohm. It is generally denoted by “R”.
9. What should be the resistance placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6ampere from a voltage source of 24volts?
a) 2ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
Answer: c
Explanation: A resistance of 4 ohm should be placed across a voltage source in order to generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12volts. From the ohm’s law we know that V=IR, therefore resistance=V/I=>24/6 = 4ohms.
10. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 24ohm if the voltage drop across a resistor is 4 volts?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 6Ampere
Answer: d
Explanation: 6Ampere current flowing through a resistor of 24ohm if the voltage drop across a resistor is 4 volts. Since we know from the ohm’s law we know that V=IR where V is the voltage drop across the resistor, I is the current flowing through it and R is the resistance value of it, therefore I=V/R, which gives I=>24/4=6ampere.
11. Resistivity of a substance does not change if we alter its shape or length.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistivity of a substance does not change if we alter its shape or length. Resistivity is the property of a material, which does not vary with length and size. Resistance of a substance changes, if we alter its shape or length.
12. Which among the following can be termed as voltage to current converter?
a) Current controlled current source
b) Current controlled voltage source
c) Voltage controlled current source
d) Voltage controlled voltage source
Answer: c
Explanation: Voltage controlled current source can be termed as voltage to current converter. In this type of sources, the output current depends on some external voltage drop or voltage source, which is why they are named so.
13. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 24 ohms if a capacitor of 10 microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 10V DC voltage supply?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 0Ampere
Answer: d
Explanation: No current or 0 current flows through a resistor of 24 ohms if a capacitor of 10 microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 10V DC voltage supply. Since capacitor does not allow any DC current to pass through it so the current flowing across the resistor is 0.
14. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 24 ohms if a capacitor of 10 microfarads is placed in parallel to the resistor and 4V DC voltage supply is placed in series with the resistor?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 6Ampere
d) 0Ampere
Answer: c
Explanation: 6ampere current flowing through a resistor of 24ohm if the voltage drop across a resistor is 4 volts. The capacitor will act as open circuit and no current will pass through it as DC voltage is applied. And since we know from the ohm’s law we know that V=IR where V is the voltage drop across the resistor, I is the current flowing through it and R is the resistance value of it, therefore I=V/R, which gives I=>24/4=6ampere.
15. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 4 ohms if a capacitor of 10 microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 5V DC voltage supply?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 0Ampere
Answer: d
Explanation: No current or 0 current flows through a resistor of 4 ohms if a capacitor of 10 microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 5V DC voltage supply. Since capacitor does not allow any DC current to pass through it so the current flowing across the resistor is 0.
This set of Mechatronics Objective Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Voltage to Frequency Conversion”.
1. What is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in India?
a) 50 KHz
b) 30 Hz
c) 50 Hz
d) 60 Hz
Answer: c
Explanation: 50 Hz is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in India. The frequency of supplied current, vary from country to country. In USA the frequency of the supplied alternating current is 60 Hz.
2. Which type of waveform can be produced by linear oscillators?
a) Saw tooth
b) Sinusoidal
c) Square
d) Parabolic
Answer: b
Explanation: Sinusoidal waveform can be produced by linear oscillators. There are two types of oscillator, namely linear oscillator and non-linear oscillator. Linear oscillator can only produce sinusoidal waveform.
3. NE555 Integrated circuit can create alternating signals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: NE555 Integrated circuit can create alternating signals. It can create square signals. It has three modes of configuration through which we can control the duty cycle and the type of signal we want.
4. How many modes are present in NE555 Integrated circuit?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: NE555 integrated circuit has three operating modes. These modes are namely Astable mode, monostable mode and bistable mode. Monostable mode has only one stable state, bistable mode has two stable states whereas Astable mode has no stable state.
5. Which is a voltage to frequency converter?
a) BC541
b) TIP122
c) LM566
d) TIP135
Answer: c
Explanation: LM566 is a voltage to frequency converter. It is a voltage controlled oscillator designed by the National Instruments. The frequency of the output can be altered by varying the voltage at the input side.
6. How many stable states does Astable mode of NE555 has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Astable mode of NE555 has no stable state. It produces continuous alternating signal whose duty cycle can be controlled by choosing different values of resistance used in this configuration, or just changing the resistance value using potentiometer.
7. Which type of wave can be generated by LM566?
a) Aperiodic
b) Sine
c) Square
d) Parabolic
Answer: c
Explanation: LM566 can generate square waveform. It a voltage controlled oscillator. It can generate time varying alternating square or triangular waveforms from constant DC voltage. Its frequency is linear function to the applied input voltage.
8. What is the full form of LFO in context to signal generations?
a) Least frequency oscillator
b) Low frequency oscillator
c) Low frequency oscillations
d) Least frequency oscillations
Answer: b
Explanation: LFO in context to signal generations stands for Low frequency oscillator. It is used to generate time varying signals whose frequency is very low. Its output frequency is less than 20 Hz.
9. What is the frequency range of radio frequency?
a) 20 KHz to 300 GHz
b) 2 KHz to 30 GHz
c) 200 KHz to 3000 GHz
d) 10 KHz to 10 GHz
Answer: a
Explanation: The range of radio frequency is 20 KHz to 300 GHz. Radio frequency is generally used in telephonic communications. These High frequency valued signal can encapsulate large number of information within them.
10. Which type of waveform cannot be produced by non-linear oscillators?
a) Saw-tooth
b) Sinusoidal
c) Square
d) Triangular
Answer: b
Explanation: Sinusoidal waveform cannot be produced by non-linear oscillators. There are two types of oscillator, namely linear oscillator and non-linear oscillator. Linear oscillator can only produce sinusoidal signals. Non-linear oscillator can only produce non-sinusoidal waveforms such as Saw tooth, Square, Triangular etc.
11. Which type conversion can be done using LM2575WU?
a) DC-DC conversion
b) AC-DC conversion
c) DC-AC conversion
d) AC-AC conversion
Answer: a
Explanation: DC-DC conversion can be done using LM2575WU. It is a step down DC to DC converter Integrated circuit. It is manufactured by microchip technology. It has total 6 pins.
12. Who invented alternating current?
a) Nicola Tesla
b) Thomas Edison
c) Albert Einstein
d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: a
Explanation: Nicola Tesla invented alternating current. Alternating current is a bidirectional current. The direction of current is not fixed; it changes in every fraction of a second. This is the current which comes in our home through electric poles and we use it for fulfilling up our daily needs such as lighting up bulbs and tubelights.
13. What is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in United States?
a) 50 KHz
b) 30 Hz
c) 50 Hz
d) 60 Hz
Answer: d
Explanation: 60 Hz is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in United States. The frequency of supplied current, vary from country to country. In India the frequency of the supplied alternating current is 50 Hz.
14. What is the time taken by a sinusoidal signal of frequency 0.5 Hz to complete one fundamental cycle?
a) 5 seconds
b) 3 seconds
c) 2 seconds
d) 4 seconds
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Frequency = 0.5 Hz
Frequency=1/T
Time Period = 1/F
Therefore, Time Period=1/0.5 => 2 seconds.
15. What is the frequency of a sinusoidal signal if the time taken to complete one fundamental cycle is 0.1 seconds?
a) 5 Hz
b) 10 Hz
c) 0.5 Hz
d) 4 Hz
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: Time Period=0.1 second
Frequency=1/T
Therefore, Frequency=1/0.1=>10 s -1
Or Frequency=10 Hz.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog Signal Conditioning – Frequency to Voltage Conversion”.
1. We can control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC in monostable mode.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: We cannot control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC in monostable mode. In monostable mode we have only stable state which can be either high or low. But in bistable mode we can control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC because we have two stable states.
2. Capacitors do not allow AC to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacitors allows only AC to pass through it. It blocks DC to pass through it. Capacitors are used as a filter to separate DC and AC . It acts as open circuit when DC is applied.
3. Capacitors do not allow DC to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitors does not allow DC to pass through it. Capacitors only allow alternating type of signal to pass through it. When DC voltage is applied across the terminals of the capacitor then, the capacitor gets charged up and acts as an open circuit path.
4. How many pins do LM331 IC has?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
Answer: c
Explanation: LM331 IC has 8 pins. It comes in a 8 pin DIP package. It has excellent linearity property which can be used for voltage to frequency conversion and vice versa. It is manufactured by National Semiconductors.
5. Which is a frequency to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) TIP122
c) LM555
d) TIP135
Answer: c
Explanation: LM555 is a frequency to voltage converter. It can produce accurate and precise oscillations. It can also be used to generate precise time delays. For generating time delays, an external resistor or capacitor is used.
6. How many pins does LM555 IC has?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
Answer: c
Explanation: LM555 IC has 8 pins. It is a timer IC that comes in a 8 pin DIP package. The IC can be used in three modes that are monostable, astable and bistable.
7. Which is not a voltage to frequency converter?
a) BC541
b) LM2917
c) LM555
d) KA331
Answer: a
Explanation: BC541 is not a voltage to frequency converter. It is a bipolar junction transistor. LM2917 is a voltage to frequency converter designed by the Texas instrument. LM555 is a timer Integrated circuit which can be used for voltage to frequency. KA331 is developed by ON Semiconductor which can be used voltage to frequency conversion and vice versa.
8. Which is a frequency to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) LM741H
c) LM2917
d) TIP135
Answer: c
Explanation: LM2917 is a frequency to voltage converter. It is manufactured by the Texas Instruments. LM741H is most commonly used operational amplifier. BC541 is a bipolar junction transistor. TIP135 is a Darlington transistor.
9. What is the bandwidth range of KA331 IC?
a) 1 Hz to 100 KHz
b) 1 Hz to 100 GHz
c) 2 KHz to 30 GHz
d) 10 KHz to 10 GHz
Answer: a
Explanation: The bandwidth range of KA331 IC is 1Hz to 100 KHz. It is a voltage to frequency converter which is used in making analog to digital converter. This IC comes in a 8 in DIP package. It can also be used to make frequency to voltage converter.
10. LM331 cannot be used for frequency to voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: LM331 can be used for frequency to voltage conversion. It is designed for precise frequency to voltage conversion by the National Semiconductors. It can also be used for voltage to frequency conversion.
11. What is the frequency of a signal if the time taken to complete one cycle is 0.2 seconds?
a) 5 Hz
b) 2 Hz
c) 0.5 Hz
d) 4 Hz
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Time Period = 0.2 second
Frequency = 1/T
Therefore, Frequency =1/0.2=>5 -1
Or Frequency =5 Hz
12. What is the time period of a signal if the time taken to complete one cycle is 10 hertz?
a) 5 second
b) 0.1 second
c) 0.5 second
d) 4 second
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Frequency = 10 hertz
Time Period = 1/F
Therefore, Time Period = 1/10 => 0.1 s
13. What is the type of signal called when its frequency is zero?
a) Sine Signal
b) Square wave
c) DC Signal
d) Rectilinear signal
Answer: c
Explanation: DC Signal has frequency zero. These types of signal does not contain any crests and troughs, the signal is represented by straight line parallel to any axis. The straight line represents that the signal does not changes its polarity with time.
14. Inductors do not allow DC to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductors allows DC to pass through it. Inductors show their characteristic properties with alternating current . When DC current is applied to it, it acts as a normal conductor with zero resistance.
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductors allows AC to pass through it. Inductors show their characteristic properties with alternating current . When AC is applied across it, it resists the change in current flowing through it and therefore the current lags the voltage by 90 degree.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Fluid Power Systems – 1 ”.
1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as pneumatic system.
2. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil is incompressible, oil can be pressurized to very high pressure . Since pressure is high, the force developed is also very high . Since pressure is high, components are very strong, made of steel and are heavy.
3. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum-based oils, they are inflammable and there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store a sufficient amount of hydraulic oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of an oil reservoir is to store a sufficient amount of hydraulic oil in the system. Apart from this, it has many other functions such as to cool the hot return oil, to settle down the contaminants, to remove air bubbles and to separate water from the oil. The other options mentioned are the parts of the hydraulic system with different functions.
5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the rotatory pump is to pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit. It converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy. The flow control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set value.
7. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as hydraulic system.
8. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical energy that can either be a linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of compressed air.
9. What is the function of an air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
10. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water.
This set of Mechatronics Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Fluid Power Systems – 2”.
1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Hydraulic Pumps
Answer: d
Explanation: Pump is a mechanical device which gives energy to the liquid. The liquid can have energy in any of the forms such as Kinetic energy, Pressure energy and potential energy. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a Pneumatic system.
2. Which among the following pumps have a definite amount of discharge?
a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Non-positive displacement pumps
c) Self-priming pumps
d) Jet pumps
Answer: a
Explanation: In positive displacement pumps, the discharge is positive. The word positive implies that there will be a definite amount of discharge irrespective of an increase in pressure. In non-positive displacement pumps, the discharge is not constant. Self-priming pumps and Jet pumps are the types of non-displacement pumps.
3. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
Answer: b
Explanation: The FRL unit does not consist of the air filter. It contains Air dryer, Air regulator and Air lubricator. The air filter removes the dust particles from compressed air and allows clean dry compressed air to the system. Air regulator controls the pressure of the compressed air and Air lubricator adds lubricating oil to the compressed air.
4. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air, by which speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve controls the direction of the flow of oil.
5. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
Answer: a
Explanation: It controls the direction of flow of compressed air, by which speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Force and motion are controlled through the double acting cylinder.
6. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
Answer: b
Explanation: Pneumatic systems can run continuously for a longer period. Harder it runs, cooler it works. In any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed air causes chilling effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system components. The other options mentioned are the disadvantages or limitations of the Pneumatic systems.
7. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust-free surroundings
Answer: a
Explanation: A lubricator is required in a Pneumatic system to add lubricant oil to compressed air or to minimize friction which is considered as one of the disadvantage or limitation of the system. The other options mentioned are the advantages of the Pneumatic systems.
8. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture equipment
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pneumatic systems are not used in Aerospace activities, Hydraulic systems are used. The other options are the applications of Pneumatic systems. Packing is the final operation done on the product of any industry. The Pneumatic hand tools are extensively employed in mines. They are also used in shears and Pneumatic systems.
9. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
Answer: a
Explanation: The vanes are seated in the radial slots of the rotor and held against the casing by spring force or hydraulic force. Hence there will not be any leakage of oil between the vane tips and the casing. Still, there is a little amount of leakage and hence the volumetric efficiency will be around 95%.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
Answer: d
Explanation: The weight is not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps. There are different values for gear pumps, vane pumps and piston pumps for Pressure, Discharge and Speed which are predefined values.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “ Hydraulic Systems”.
1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a pneumatic system.
2. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil is incompressible, oil can be pressurized to very high pressure . Since pressure is high, the force developed is also very high . Since pressure is high, components are very strong, made of steel and are heavy.
3. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum based oils, they are inflammable and there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store the sufficient amount of hydraulic oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of the oil reservoir is to store a sufficient amount of hydraulic oil in the system. Apart from this, it has many other functions such as to cool the hot return oil, to settle down the contaminants, to remove air bubbles and to separate water from the oil. The other options mentioned are the parts of the hydraulic system with different functions.
5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the rotatory pump is to pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit. It converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy. The flow control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set value.
7. What controls the direction of the flow of oil?
a) Pressure relief valve
b) Direction control valve
c) Flow control valve
d) Actuator
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction control valve controls the direction of flow of oil, by which it performs extension and retraction of the actuator . The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump.The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of oil and the actuator produces work.
8. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of oil
b) To pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit.
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of oil
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of oil, by which, speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve controls the direction of the flow of oil.
9. How many types of actuators are present in hydraulic systems?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Actuators produces work. There are two types of actuators linear and rotary. The linear actuator is called cylinder and a rotary actuator is called as the motor. The force developed is given by the product of the pressure of oil and area of the piston.
10. What is the function of a pressure gauge?
a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure gauge is used to give the pressure reading. Pressure settings are made into the pressure gauge. Without a pressure gauge, it is not possible to make the pressure relief valve settings, unloading valve settings etc.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Pneumatic Systems”.
1. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a hydraulic system.
2. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical energy that can either be the linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of compressed air.
3. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and delivers the compressed air to the pneumatic system. Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves.
4. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
5. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water
6. Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation. This is because of the low viscosity of compressed air. These systems can run continuously for a longer period and in any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed air causes chilling effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system components.
7. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
Answer: b
Explanation: The FRL unit does not consist of the air filter. It contains Air dryer, Air regulator and Air lubricator. The air filter removes the dust particles from compressed air and allows clean dry compressed air to the system. Air regulator controls the pressure of the compressed air and Air lubricator adds lubricating oil to the compressed air.
8. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air, by which, speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve controls the direction of the flow of oil.
9. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
Answer: a
Explanation: It controls the direction of flow of compressed air, by which, speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Force and motion are controlled through the double acting cylinder.
10. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
Answer: b
Explanation: Pneumatic systems can run continuously for a longer period. Harder it runs, cooler it works. In any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed air causes chilling effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system components. The other options mentioned are the disadvantages or limitations of the Pneumatic systems.
11. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust free surroundings
Answer: a
Explanation: A lubricator is required in a Pneumatic system to add lubricant oil to compressed air or to minimize friction which is considered as one of the disadvantage or limitation of the system. The other options mentioned are the advantages of the Pneumatic systems.
12. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture types of equipment
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pneumatic systems are not used in Aerospace activities; Hydraulic systems are used. The other options are the applications of Pneumatic systems. Packing is the final operation done on the product of any industry. The Pneumatic hand tools are extensively employed in mines. They are also used in shears and Pneumatic systems.
This set of Mechatronics Questions & Answers for Exams focuses on “System Structure and Signal Flow in Pneumatic Systems”.
1. Which transform converts the function from time domain to “s” domain ?
a) Laplace Transform
b) Fourier Transform
c) Z Transform
d) InverseLaplace Transform
Answer: a
Explanation: Laplace transform converts the function from time domain to “s” domain . It is an integral that transforms the function from real time domain to a function of complex variable “s”.
2. Who invented Laplace transform?
a) Pierre-Simon Laplace
b) Pitas Laplace
c) Charles young
d) Charles Wheatstone
Answer: a
Explanation: Pierre-Simon Laplace invented Laplace transform. It is an integral that transforms the function from real time domain to a function of complex variable “s”. The “s” represents a complex frequency domain.
3. Which signal cannot be determined through mathematical equation?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Aperiodic signal
d) Power Signal
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Deterministic signal cannot be determined through mathematical equation. Its value at any point of time cannot be determined beforehand. Due to its random nature, it is also called as “Random Signal”.
4. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x=x{where “t” represents time domain}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
Answer: d
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x=x {where “t” represents time domain}, then the signal is called as even signal. A signal is said to be odd signal if it satisfies the equation x=-x {where “t” represents time domain}.
5. Node and junction are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Node and junction are not same. A node is a meeting point of two circuit elements, it does not matter if it’s active or passive element of the circuit. A junction is a point where least three circuit paths meet.
6. Fourier transform converts the function from time domain to frequency domain.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Fourier transform converts the function from time domain to frequency domain. It decomposes a function of time to a function of frequency. This transform was proposed by Joseph Fourier in the year 1882.
7. Which Integrated circuit/module can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms?
a) ICL8038
b) LMK61A2-125M00SIAT
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
Answer: a
Explanation: ICL8038can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms. LMK61A2-125M00SIAT is a crystal oscillator that can generate square signals. FN2060A-6-06 is an example of Power line filter. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor.
8. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x=x {where “t” represents time domain and T represents fundamental time period}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Periodic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
Answer: b
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x=x {where “t” represents time domain and T represents fundamental time period}, then the signal is called as periodic signal. Periodic signals repeat itself after the fundamental time period.
9. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x=-x {where “t” represents time domain}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
Answer: c
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x=-x {where “t” represents time domain}, then the signal is called as Odd signal. A signal is said to be even signal if it satisfies the equation x=x {where “t” represents time domain}.
10. Which is an example of Square wave generator?
a) ICL8038
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
Answer: a
Explanation: ICL8038is an example of Square wave generator. It can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms. FN2060A-6-06 is an example of Power line filter. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. What is the signal called if its value is defined only at fixed instants of time?
a) Discrete signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Random Signal
d) Deterministic signal
Answer: a
Explanation: If the value of signal is defined only at fixed instants of time then it is called as “Discrete Signal”. When the value of signal is defined at every instants of time then it is called as “Continuous Signal”.
12. A System is a specified process which produces signal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A System is not a specified process which produces signal. Any process that can produce an output based on the input provided can be termed as a “System”. In general, a process that produces output signal based upon input signal is termed as a system.
13. Z transform cannot convert discrete frequency signal to complex time domain.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Z transform cannot convert discrete frequency signal to complex time domain. It converts discrete time signal to complex frequency domain. The discrete time signal constitutes a sequence of real and complex numbers.
14. How many minimum number of circuit path, meeting at a point make up a junction?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: At least 3 circuit paths meeting at a point make up a junction. It can be any point on the electric circuit connected through electrical conductors. It is a point of junction of two or more branches.
15. Which type of signal is also referred as random signal?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Deterministic signal
d) Power Signal
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Deterministic signal is also referred as random signal. These signals cannot be expressed in the form of mathematical equation. The value at any value of time cannot be determined.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Hydraulic Pumps”.
1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Hydraulic Pumps
Answer: d
Explanation: Pump is a mechanical device which gives energy to the liquid. The liquid can have energy in any of the forms such as Kinetic energy, Pressure energy and potential energy. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a pneumatic system.
2. Which among the following pumps have a definite amount of discharge?
a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Non-positive displacement pumps
c) Self-priming pumps
d) Jet pumps
Answer: a
Explanation: In positive displacement pumps, the discharge is positive. The word positive implies that there will be a definite amount of discharge irrespective of an increase in pressure. In non-positive displacement pumps, the discharge is not constant. Self-priming pumps and Jet pumps are the types of non-displacement pumps.
3. The non-positive displacement pumps do not have a constant discharge.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In non-positive displacement pumps, the discharge is not constant. The discharge reduces with increase in pressure and the discharge becomes zero at maximum pressure. At high pressure, the pump cannot deliver oil. Hence the non-positive displacement pumps have no use in hydraulic systems.
4. Which type of pumps can give discharge even at high pressure?
a) Multistage Pumps
b) Monoblock pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Single stage pumps
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps are positive displacement pumps. Rotary pumps have two or more rotating components. The discharge of rotary components remains almost the same irrespective of pressure. They can give discharge even at high pressure. In the other options, the type of pumps mentioned is all non-positive displacement types.
5. Which type of component in a hydraulic system supports less vibration and noise?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: c
Explanation: Very less vibration and noise are observed in the case of rotary pumps. These pumps are compact with very a smaller number of moving components. The flow control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set value.
7. Which type of pump consists of two spur or helical gears?
a) External gear pumps
b) Internal gear pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Vane pumps
Answer: a
Explanation: The external gear pump consists of two spur or helical gears, which are meshed with each other and mounted inside the casing. One is the driver and another one is driven. The other pumps mentioned in the options does not contain two spur or helical gears.
8. What is the property of a screw pump?
a) Discharge is continuous, smooth and non-pulsating
b) Very less vibration and noise
c) Has two or more rotating components
d) Consists of a left handed and a right handed screw
Answer: d
Explanation: The screw pump is a positive displacement pump which comes with two or three screws. Each shaft has a left hand and a right hand screw, for hydraulic pressure balance. The other properties mentioned in the options are the properties of a rotary pump.
9. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between pressure of inlet and outlet
Answer: a
Explanation: The vanes are seated in the radial slots of the rotor and held against the casing by spring force or hydraulic force. Hence there will not be any leakage of oil between the vane tips and the casing. Still there is a little amount of leakage and hence the volumetric efficiency will be around 95%.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
Answer: d
Explanation: The weight is not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps. There are different values for gear pumps, vane pumps and piston pumps for Pressure, Discharge and Speed which are predefined values.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Hydraulic Actuating Systems – Pressure Regulation”.
1. What is the function of a pressure control valve?
a) To control the force generated by actuators
b) To perform two operations in sequence
c) To control the direction of flow
d) To avoid the development of excess of pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force generated by actuators. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of the Direction control valve, Sequence valve and hydraulic fuse respectively. The control valve is used to control different parameters of the fluid.
2. Which among the following fluid parameters are not controlled by the control valves?
a) Pressure
b) Rate of flow
c) Speed
d) Direction of flow
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed is not an important parameter controlled by the control valves. Control valves control the fluid parameters such as the pressure of the working fluid, Rate of flow of working fluid and direction of flow of the working fluid.
3. Pressure reducing valve is used to maintain constant reduced pressure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure reducing valve is used to maintain constant reduced pressure in a system. It consists of a diaphragm, an adjusting screw, a spring, a conical poppet fit to the diaphragm. If the pressure of the outlet increases, the diaphragm deflects upwards due to which the conical poppet will also move upwards to close the passage of working fluid flow.
4. Once the pressure comes to normal, the diaphragm ____
a) deflects downwards
b) deflects upwards
c) has no effect
d) expands
Answer: a
Explanation: Once the pressure comes to normal, the diaphragm deflects downwards. If the pressure of the outlet increases, the diaphragm deflects upwards due to which the conical poppet will also move upwards to close the passage of working fluid flow. At normal pressure, it deflects downwards and the conical poppet moves downwards.
5. The function of the pressure relief valve is ____
a) to open when the inlet pressure is more
b) to control the force generated by actuators
c) to control different parameters of the fluid
d) to control the direction of flow
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the pressure relief valve is that it opens when the inlet pressure which may be the system pressure or the pilot pressure becomes more than the pre-set value. In the other options, the main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force generated by actuators. The control valve is used to control different parameters of fluid by which the required specific task is completed in a proper way as desired.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set value.
7. What is the function of a pressure gauge?
a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure gauge is used to give the pressure reading. Pressure settings are made into the pressure gauge. Without a pressure gauge, it is not possible to make the pressure relief valve settings, unloading valve settings etc.
8. What happens when the pressure increases its pre-set value?
a) The pressure relief valve opens
b) Deflects upwards
c) Deflects downwards
d) Has no effect
Answer: a
Explanation: If the pressure inside a system increases above the pre-set level, this valve opens to release the working fluid back to the reservoir tank, so that the system pressure comes to the normal value. The other mentioned options are not the correct choices.
9. What is the formula for the force of a cylinder?
a) F=
b) F=
c) F=
d) F=
Answer: a
Explanation: The force of a cylinder is the product of the pressure of working fluid and area of the piston that is . To vary the force, we need to vary any of these two, either the pressure of working fluid or the area of the piston.
10. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil is incompressible, oil can be pressurized to very high pressure . Since pressure is high, the force developed is also very high . Since pressure is high, components are very strong, made of steel and are heavy.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Hydraulic Actuating Systems – Air Compressors”.
1. What is the function of the air compressor?
a) Decreases the pressure of air
b) Increases the pressure of air
c) Removes dust particles
d) Adds lubricating oil
Answer: b
Explanation: Air compressor is a machine which draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it to increase the pressure and delivers the high pressure compressed air to the air receiver tank. The other options mentioned are the functions of the air filter and air lubricator respectively.
2. Which among the following are the applications of air compressors?
a) Supercharging of IC engines
b) Agriculture
c) Railways
d) Aerospace
Answer: a
Explanation: Some of the applications of air compressors are supercharging IC engines, Gas turbines and jet engines, Packing machines, Hand tools, CNC machines etc. and in spray paintings. The other options mentioned are the applications of Hydraulic systems.
3. The capacity of the compressor is specified by free air delivery.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity of the compressor is specified by free air delivery. Free air delivery is defined as the volume of the air drawn by the compressor per unit time. After compression, the volume reduces as per pressure. It is a factor that should be considered during the selection of air compressor.
4. Which among the following are not the accurate selection criteria for air compressors?
a) Free air delivery
b) Air receiver capacity
c) Power supply
d) Speed
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the accurate selection criteria for the selection of air compressors. The selection criteria of the air compressors include factors such as average air consumption of the system, free air delivery, Air receiver capacity, Power supply and components and accessories.
5. What is the normal pressure at which the compressed air is stored?
a) 30 bar
b) 40 bar
c) 10 bar
d) 100 bar
Answer: c
Explanation: Several types of air compressors are used for generating the compressed air for pneumatic systems. The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and delivers it to the air receiver tank, where it is stored under pressure. Normally compressed air is stored at a maximum of 10 bar pressure in the air receiver tank.
6. The compressed air is very costly.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Air is freely available. Compressed air is very costly due to various power losses during compression. The main loss is due to the heat of compression. During compression, the pressure increases, the volume reduces and the temperature increases.
7. Which among the following leads to conserving of energy?
a) Conserving compressed air
b) Wasting the compressed air
c) Using compressed air for Cleaning and Washing
d) Allowing leakages of compressed air
Answer: a
Explanation: Conserving the compressed air leads to conserving energy. Employees should be trained well to conserve compressed air in the industry. If leakages of air are found anywhere, immediately it should be stopped. Use of compressed air for cleaning anything should be avoided.
8. What is the use of Intake air filters?
a) To reduce the temperature of the air
b) Used as storage and smoothened
c) To prevent dust from entering the compressor
d) To remove the traces of moisture
Answer: c
Explanation: Intake air filters are used to prevent dust from entering the compressor. Dust causes sticking valves, scoured cylinders, excessive wear etc. The other functions mentioned in the options are done using Interstage coolers, air dryers and air receivers respectively.
9. What is the function of Interstage coolers?
a) To reduce the temperature of the air
b) Used as storage and smoothened
c) To prevent dust from entering the compressor
d) To remove the traces of moisture
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of Interstage coolers are to reduce the temperature of the air before it enters the next stage to reduce the work of compression and increase efficiency. They are normally water cooled. The other functions mentioned in the options are done using intake air filters, air dryers and air receivers respectively.
10. The removal of moisture from the compressed air is done using ____
a) receivers
b) moisture drain traps
c) air dryers
d) interstage coolers
Answer: b
Explanation: The removal of moisture from the compressed air is done using Moisture drain traps. These traps resemble steam traps. Interstage coolers are used to reduce the temperature of the air before it enters the next stage. The remaining traces of moisture after cooler are removed using air dryers. Air receivers are provided as storage and smoothening the pulsating air output.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Hydraulic Actuating Systems – Control Valves”.
1. What is the function of the control valve?
a) To control different parameters of the fluid
b) To perform two operations in sequence
c) To control the direction of flow
d) To avoid the development of excess of pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The control valve is used to control different parameters of fluid, by which the required specific task is completed in a proper way as desired. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of the Direction control valve, Sequence valve and hydraulic fuse respectively.
2. Which among the following fluid parameters are not controlled by the control valves?
a) Pressure
b) Rate of flow
c) Speed
d) Direction of flow
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed is not an important parameter controlled by the control valves. Control valves control the fluid parameters such as the pressure of the working fluid, Rate of flow of working fluid and direction of flow of the working fluid.
3. There is no difference between the control valve of the pneumatic and hydraulic system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The only difference between the control valve of the pneumatic and hydraulic system is that the hydraulic components are made stronger and heavy, they are made up of steel as they have to work under very high pressure of oil, Whereas the pneumatic components are made lighter using aluminium, plastic etc.
4. What is the function of the pressure control valve?
a) To control the force generated by actuators
b) To perform two operations in sequence
c) To control the direction of flow
d) To avoid the development of excess of pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force generated by actuators. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of the Direction control valve, Sequence valve and hydraulic fuse respectively. The control valve is used to control different parameters of the fluid.
5. The valve packing of control valves is used ____
a) to prevent the fluid from escaping
b) to control the force generated by actuators
c) to control different parameters of the fluid
d) to control the direction of flow
Answer: a
Explanation: The valve packing of control valves is used to prevent the fluid from escaping. In the other options, the main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force generated by actuators. The control valve is used to control different parameters of fluid by which the required specific task is completed in the proper way as desired.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set value.
7. What is the formula of speed control valve during extension of a flow control valve?
a) V=
b) V=Q.A
c) V=A/Q
d) V=Q
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula of speed control valve during extension of a flow control valve is V= where ‘Q’ is the rate of flow of the working fluid and A is the area of the Piston. V is the speed of the actuator.
8. What is the formula of speed control valve during retraction of a flow control valve?
a) V=
b) V=Q.A
c) V=A/Q
d) V=Q/
Answer: d
Explanation: The formula of speed control valve during retraction of a flow control valve is V=Q/, where ‘Q’ is the rate of flow of the working fluid and A is the area of the Piston. V is the speed of the actuator and ‘a’ is the area of the piston rod.
9. Which among the following are not the ‘work parameters’ of the fluid?
a) Direction
b) Speed
c) Pressure
d) Temperature of flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The temperature of flow is not an important work parameter. The work parameters of the fluid are the amount of force required, Rate of flow of working fluid and Direction of application of force.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria of the control valves?
a) Type of actuation
b) Environmental conditions
c) Space requirement
d) Software support
Answer: d
Explanation: Software support is not the main selection criteria and there is no use of software support in control valves. The main selection criteria of the control valve are flow rate of oil, the pressure of oil, the force required by cylinder, speed, type of actuation, port size, space requirement, the temperature of oil, oil under pressure compatibility and environmental conditions.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Hydraulic Actuator and Output Devices”.
1. Which is not an output device?
a) Seven Segment display
b) Liquid crystal display
c) Lithium battery indicator
d) Lithium battery
Answer: d
Explanation: Lithium battery is not an output device. It can give input to a device. “Seven segment display” is used to display numerical values as well as some English alphabets. Liquid crystal display can be used to display anything. Lithium battery indicator is used to display the battery level.
2. Who invented hydraulic press?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Joseph Bramah
c) Charles young
d) Charles wheatstone
Answer: b
Explanation: Joseph Bramah invented hydraulic press. The first patent for hydraulic press was applied and patented by him in the year 1795. Hydraulic press uses hydraulic cylinders to generate compressive force.
3. What is the push provided by a hydraulic fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a steel ball of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 1200kg/m 3 , Take g=10m/s 2 ?
a) 1.695N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 1.356N
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Density of fluid = 1200kg/m 3
g=10m/s 2
Radius=3cm
Volume of steel ball = 4/3πr 3 =4/3π 3
V=1.13*10 -4 m 3
Push = ρf*g*v
P=1200kg/m 3 *10m/s*1.13*10 -4 m 3
P=1.356N
4. What is the push provided by water used in fluid based actuator, if a wooden ball of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the water has a density of 1000kg/m 3 , wood has a density of 900kg/m 3 , Take g=10m/s 2 ?
a) 1.695N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 1.13N
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Density of water = 1000kg/m 3
Density of wood = 900kg/m 3
Since the push or thrust applied by a fluid does not depend on the density of object, so we will not consider the density of wood. Rather we should focus on the density of water.
g=10m/s 2
Radius=3cm
Volume of wooden ball = 4/3πr 3 =4/3π 3
V=1.13*10 -4 m 3
Push = ρf*g*v
P=1000kg/m 3 *10m/s*1.13*10 -4 m 3
P=1.13N
5. The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be controlled using PLC control system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be controlled using PLC control system. PLC stands for programmable logic controller. It is a digital computer that can control electromechanical machines. The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be easily controlled through it.
6. Archimedes principle depends on the density of the immersed object.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Archimedes principle does not depend on the density of the immersed object. It depends on the density of the fluid in which it is being immersed. It also depends on the volume of the object and acceleration due to gravity.
7. What is the push provided by a hydraulic fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a steel ball of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 2000kg/m 3 , Take g=10m/s 2 ?
a) 5N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 4N
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Density of fluid =2000kg/m 3
g=10m/s
Radius=3cm
Volume of steel ball = 4/3πr 3 =4/3π 3
V=1.13*10 -4 m 3
Push = ρf*g*v
P=2000kg/m 3 *10m/s*1.13*10 -4 m 3
P=2.26N
8. Where will the push provided by a fluid of hydraulic piston will be more?
a) Wooden piston of density 900 Kg/m 3 and radius 6 cm
b) Iron piston of density 7850 Kg/m 3 and radius 5 cm
c) Copper piston of density 8940 Kg/m 3 and radius 5 cm
d) Glass piston of density 2580 Kg/m 3 and radius 3 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: The push provided by a fluid of hydraulic piston will be more in a wooden piston of density 900 Kg/m 3 and radius 6 cm. It is so because the push provided by the fluid does not depend on the density of rather it is directly proportional to the volume of the object. Since the wooden piston has maximum radius so the volume is also maximum.
9. How many LED’s are present in 7 segment display?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Answer: b
Explanation: 7 LED’s are present in 7 segment display. These 7 LED’s together form up a “8” like structure which can be used to display any number from 0 to 9. Each LED can be controlled individually.
10. Generator is a rotary actuator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Generator is not a rotary actuator. An actuator is a machine or mechanical component of a machine that moves and controls the movement of machine. It can be anything that controls the mechanism of a system. A rotary actuator produces rotary motion. But a generator does not provide rotary motion; it provides electricity from rotational motion. So it is not a rotary actuator.
11. What is the push provided by a fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a plastic ball of radius 4cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 1100kg/m 3 , plastic has a density of 800kg/m 3 , Take g= 10m/s 2 ?
a) 1.695N
b) 2.9469N
c) 2.26N
d) 1.13N
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: Density of fluid = 1100kg/m 3
Density of plastic = 800kg/m 3
Since the push or thrust applied by a fluid does not depend on the density of object, so we will not consider the density of plastic. Rather we should focus on the density of fluid.
g=10m/s 2
Radius=4cm
Volume of wooden ball = 4/3πr 3 =4/3π 3
V=2.679*10 -4 m 3
Push = ρf*g*v
P=1100kg/m 3 *10m/s*2.679*10 -4 m 3
P=2.9469N
12. Motor is a rotary actuator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Motor is a rotary actuator. An actuator is a machine or mechanical component of a machine that moves and controls the movement of machine. It can be anything that controls the mechanism of a system. A rotary actuator produces rotary motion. Example: motor.
13. How many columns of pixel matrix are present in 16*2 display?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 2
d) 16
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 16 pixel matrixes present in 16*2 display. A 16*2 display is made up of 16 columns and 2 rows of pixel matrix. Each pixel matrix is made up of 5*7 numbers of pixels. In total it has 1120 pixels.
14. How many pixels are there in 16*2 displays?
a) 1000
b) 1200
c) 1120
d) 1100
Answer: c
Explanation: 1120 pixels are present in 16*2 displays. 16*2 display has 32 blocks in which can be used to display any number or character. Each block is made up of 5*7 pixel matrix. So the total number of pixel will be 32*35 = 1120 pixels.
15. What is the push provided by a hydraulic fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a steel ball of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 1500kg/m 3 , Take g=10m/s 2 ?
a) 1.695N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 4N
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Density of fluid =1500kg/m 3
g=10m/s 2
Radius=3cm
Volume of steel ball = 4/3πr 3 =4/3π 3
V=1.13*10 -4 m 3
Push = ρf*g*v
P=1500kg/m 3 *10m/s*1.13*10 -4 m 3
P=1.695N
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electro-Pneumatics”.
1. Which is an electro-pneumatic device?
a) Seven Segment display
b) BO Motor
c) Hydraulic cylinder
d) Lithium battery
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic cylinder is an electro-pneumatic device. Pneumatics refers to the system or devices that is being controlled or operated by the means of air pressure. Hydraulic cylinders often use inert fluids.
2. Which actuator does not need any external power source?
a) 3 phase motor
b) Solenoid valve
c) Wax Motor
d) BO motor
Answer: c
Explanation: Wax Motor is a linear actuator does not need any external power source. It converts thermal energy to mechanical energy. It works on the principle of expansion of wax when it is converted to liquid form.
3. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in check valves?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: There is only 1 direction for a fluid to flow in check valves. The movement of flow of compressed gas or any fluid is unidirectional. The Valve automatically opens when the fluid enters the inlet with some specific pressure.
4. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: There are only 2 directions for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves. It allows inlet from 2 different directions. A dynamic shuttle is used to switch the flow from the inputs. Fluid flows from the inlet which is experiencing higher pressure.
5. The OPEN and CLOSE time of an electro pneumatic valve can be controlled using PLC control system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be controlled using PLC control system. PLC stands for programmable logic controller. It is a digital computer that can control electromechanical machines. The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be easily controlled through it.
6. Thermal actuators need electric current for operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal actuators do not need electric current for operation. It is made up of a cylinder, piston and a thermal sensitive material. When this actuator comes in contact with heat the thermal sensitive material expands and pushes the piston out.
7. What is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems?
a) Delicate Control Valve
b) Distance Control Value
c) Directional Control Valve
d) Diameter Control Valve
Answer: c
Explanation: Directional Control Valve is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems. These directional control valves are used to control the direction of flow of any compressed gas or fluid.
8. Which valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions?
a) Spool valve
b) Shuttle Valve
c) Check valve
d) Rubber valve
Answer: a
Explanation: Spool valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions. It can also be used for bidirectional and tri-directional flow of fluid. Shuttle Valve allows only two inlets of fluid and Check valve only allows unidirectional flow of fluids.
9. Which valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference?
a) Rubber valve
b) Pilot Valve
c) Check valve
d) Solenoid valve
Answer: d
Explanation: Solenoid valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference. When the electricity passes through the solenoid, it acts as a switch. By manipulating the electrical signal it can open and close the valve as per the requirement.
10. Which is an example of pressure regulator?
a) R100UD
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
Answer: a
Explanation: R100UD is an example of pressure regulator. It is a single stage pressure regulator. It is made up of cast aluminum. It can regulate pressure of oxygen, nitrogen, propane, compressed air and other natural gasses.
11. Who invented check valve?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Robert Wiener
c) Charles young
d) Frank P. Cotter
Answer: d
Explanation: Frank P. Cotter invented check valve. He invented the first check valve in the year 1907. The valve was easy to install, repair and maintain. Further many types of check valve were invented such as “Tesla valve” invented by Nicola Tesla.
12. Solenoid valves cannot be used for controlling the valve of a liquid flowing through a channel.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Solenoid valves can be used for controlling the valve of a liquid flowing through a channel. It can be used for controlling the valve of any fluid flowing through a channel. When current flows through the solenoid, it acts as a switch.
13. Wax motor does not require external electrical power source.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Wax motor does not require external electrical power source. It performs linear actuation by exploiting the phase change behavior of different waxes. When the waxes melt due to heat, it can expand up to 20% of its volume.
14. What type of motion can be achieved using thermal actuator?
a) Rectilinear
b) Spiral
c) Circular
d) Parabolic
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectilinear motion can be achieved using thermal actuator. It is a non electric type linear actuating setup which is made up of a cylinder, piston and a thermal sensitive material. When this actuator comes in contact with heat the thermal sensitive material expands and pushes the piston out.
15. Which is an example of push pull solenoid electromagnet?
a) R100UD
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) JF-0630B
Answer: d
Explanation: JF-0630B is an example of push pull solenoid electromagnet. It works on 12 volt DC supply with operating current of 1 ampere. It can provide holding force up to 6 Newton. It is used when there is a requirement of a linear actuation. Example: Door locks.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Pneumatic and Hydraulic Circuits”.
1. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a hydraulic system.
2. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) Pipes and valves
b) Shafts
c) Motors
d) Flow control valve
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical energy that can either be the linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of compressed air.
3. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and delivers the compressed air to the pneumatic system. Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves.
4. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
5. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water.
6. Which type of pumps can give discharge even at high pressure?
a) Multistage Pumps
b) Monoblock pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Single stage pumps
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps are positive displacement pumps. Rotary pumps have two or more rotating components. The discharge of rotary components remains almost the same irrespective of pressure. They can give discharge even at high pressure. In the other options, the type of pumps mentioned is all non-positive displacement types.
7. Which type of component in the hydraulic system supports less vibration and noise?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: c
Explanation: Very less vibration and noise are observed in the case of rotary pumps. These pumps are compact with very a smaller number of moving components. The flow control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different functions.
8. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum based oils, they are inflammable and there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
9. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
Answer: a
Explanation: The vanes are seated in the radial slots of the rotor and held against the casing by spring force or hydraulic force. Hence there will not be any leakage of oil between the vane tips and the casing. Still, there is a little amount of leakage and hence the volumetric efficiency will be around 95%.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
Answer: d
Explanation: The weight is not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps. There are different values for gear pumps, vane pumps and piston pumps for Pressure, Discharge and Speed which are predefined values.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Cylinder Sequencing and Cascade Control”.
1. Duplex cylinders contain more than one piston.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Duplex cylinders contain more than one piston. These cylinders may contain two or more cylinder chambers and pistons. But the piston of any cylinder is not attached physically. Each piston and cylindrical chambers are internally separated.
2. Which type of cylinder has rod length less than the piston diameter?
a) Double acting cylinders
b) Tie-Rod cylinders
c) Short stroke cylinders
d) Telescopic cylinders
Answer: c
Explanation: Short stroke cylinders have rod length less than the piston diameter. These types of cylinders are short in height but has considerably larger diameter. These cylinders can produce high amount off linear force from less input fluid pressure.
3. Which is not an example of linear actuator?
a) Screw jack
b) Electric fan
c) Rack and Pinion gear
d) Hydraulic cylinder
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric fan is not an example of linear actuator. “Linear Actuators” are those devices which can perform linear displacement. Any device that creates motion in a straight line irrespective if the system used is a linear actuator.
4. Which type of cylinders can extend piston from both sides?
a) Double acting cylinders
b) Tie-Rod cylinders
c) Welded cylinders
d) Telescopic cylinders
Answer: a
Explanation: Double acting cylinders can extend piston from both sides. All other cylinder types can be extended on one side only. Telescopic cylinders contain series of nested tubing. Tie-Rod hydraulic cylinders use 4 or more bolts to tie up the head from the base plate, whereas welded cylinders have welded base and ends.
5. Linear actuators can only be made using hydraulic push system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Linear actuators can be made using many different push systems. It includes mechanical, electrical, thermal, hydraulic etc. Hydraulic and motor based systems are widely and most commonly used.
6. Comb drives can be referred as linear actuators.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Comb drives can be referred as linear actuators. They are micro electromechanical actuators. They use electrostatic forces for the movement of combs. These combs are electrically conductive, so when a voltage is applied to the combs they attract each other.
7. Spring return type single acting cylinder is commonly used for tool and object holding purpose.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Spring return type single acting cylinder is not used for tool and object holding purpose. Spring extend type single acting cylinder is commonly used for tool and object holding purpose. This configuration is widely because the spring force can firmly hold a workpiece.
8. Which type of cylinder contains series of nested tubing?
a) Double acting cylinders
b) Tie-Rod cylinders
c) Welded cylinders
d) Telescopic cylinders
Answer: d
Explanation: Telescopic cylinders contain series of nested tubing. These tubes are made precisely, each of slightly small diameters than the preceding ones. These cylinders can provide huge expansion and can contract in surprisingly smaller area.
9. What does PSI stand for in terms of pressure measurement?
a) Pressure squared in inches
b) Pounds per square inch
c) Pressure per square inch
d) Pounds squared in inches
Answer: b
Explanation: PSI in terms of pressure measurement stands for Pounds per square inch. It a unit if pressure measurement. One psi is a pressure equal to one pound force applied on an area of one square each.
10. Which type of cylinder should be used to generate high pressure in narrow radial space?
a) Tandem Cylinders
b) Duplex cylinders
c) Short stroke cylinders
d) Telescopic cylinders
Answer: a
Explanation: Tandem cylinder should be used to generate high pressure in narrow radial space. These are specially designed cylinders that can generate high amount of pressure in less radial space but need subsequently large axial space.
11. Which vice is also known as post vice?
a) Face vice
b) Leg vice
c) End vice
d) Tail vice
Answer: b
Explanation: Leg vice is also known as post vice. It is generally referred as “Solid Box”. It gives stability to the setup. It firmly holds the setup by providing support from the ground. This facilitates the user to easily work on the work piece.
12. Which is an example of linear actuator?
a) Wheels
b) Generator
c) Light emitting diode
d) Hydraulic cylinder
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic cylinder is an example of linear actuator. “Linear Actuators” are those devices which can perform linear displacement. Any device that creates motion in a straight line irrespective if the system used is a linear actuator.
13. Tie-Rod cylinder can bear more pressure than welded cylinder.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Tie-Rod cylinder cannot bear more pressure than welded cylinder. Welded cylinders can withstand much more pressure than the tie rod cylinders. Tie rod cylinders can bear pressure no more than 3000psi but welded cylinders are designed to bear pressure above 5000psi .
14. Which vice is also known as tail vice?
a) Face vice
b) Leg vice
c) End vice
d) Post vice
Answer: c
Explanation: End vice is also known as tail vice. It gives extra stability to the setup. It is usually placed or attached on the right side of the bench. This is done with the help of a jaw, which makes a narrow cut on the edge of the benchtop.
15. Which type of hydraulic cylinders use 4 or more bolts to tie up the head from the base plate?
a) Double acting cylinders
b) Tie-Rod cylinders
c) Welded cylinders
d) Telescopic cylinders
Answer: b
Explanation: Tie-Rod hydraulic cylinders use 4 or more bolts to tie up the head from the base plate. These bolt run along the entire length of the cylinders surface and holds the base plate firmly. These base plates can be easily detached and replaced.
This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Pneumatic Actuating Systems – Process Control Valves”.
1. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 15m 3 /hr which was reduced to 5m 3 /hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 66.67%
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 15m 3 /hr
Final flow rate: 5m 3 /hr
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 15m 3
Total volume of water flowing through the narrow valve: 5m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [/15]*100 => 66.67%
The flow rate reduced by 66.67% of the original rate.
2. What is the rate of flow of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 5m/s?
a) 3.92 * 10 -3 m 3 /s
b) 3.92 * 10 -2 m 3 /s
c) 4.92 * 10 -2 m 3 /s
d) 4.92 * 10 -3 m 3 /s
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: Diameter=10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π* 2
Area of cross section = 3.14* 2 =7.85*10 -3 m 2
Rate of flow = Area of cross section * Velocity of fluid
Rate of flow = 7.85*10 -3 m 2 * 5m/s
Rate of flow = 3.92 * 10 -2 m 3 /s.
3. What is the rate of flow of water in Litres per second from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 12m/s?
a) 100L/s
b) 127L/s
c) 157L/s
d) 94.2L/s
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Diameter=10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π* 2
Area of cross section = 3.14* 2 =7.85*10 -3 m 2
Rate of flow = Area of cross section * Velocity of fluid
Rate of flow = 7.85*10 -3 m 2 * 12m/s
Rate of flow = 0.0942m 3 /s
Now, we know 1m 3 /s=1000L/s
Therefore 0.0942m 3 /s=94.2L/s.
4. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10 m 3 /hr which was reduced to 5m 3 /hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 100%
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 10m 3 /hr
Final flow rate: 5m 3 /hr
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 10m 3
Total volume of water flowing through the narrow valve: 5m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [/10]*100 => 50%
The flow rate reduced by 50% of the original rate.
5. In “two way ball valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the ball in 90 degrees.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In “two way ball valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the ball in 90 degrees. These are the simplest type and commonly used control valves. It contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which used to turn ON and OFF the flow through the valve.
6. In “Butterfly valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the obstructer in 90 degrees.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In “Butterfly valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the obstructer in 90 degrees. It is similar to the ball valves but fluid obstructer used in this is a flat disc rather than a ball. This disc is used to turn ON and OFF the flow through the valve.
7. Which type of valves contains tapered cylindrical obstructer?
a) Butterfly valves
b) Two way ball valves
c) Three way ball valves
d) Plug Valves
Answer: d
Explanation: Plug Valves contains tapered cylindrical obstructer. Two way and Three way ball valves contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which acts as an obstructer. Butterfly valves contains a flat disc which acts as an obstructer.
8. What is the velocity of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and rate of flow of water in Litres per second is 157L/s?
a) 40m/s
b) 30m/s
c) 20m/s
d) 30m/s
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Diameter=10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π* 2
Area of cross section = 3.14* 2 =7.85*10 -3 m 2
Rate of flow of water = 157L/s
Rate of flow = Area of cross section * Velocity of fluid
157L/s = 7.85*10 -3 m 2 * Velocity of fluid
Now, we know 1m 3 /s=1000L/s
Therefore, Velocity of fluid = 20m/s.
9. Which type of valves contains a flat disc obstructer?
a) Butterfly valves
b) Two way ball valves
c) Three way ball valves
d) Plug Valves
Answer: a
Explanation: Butterfly valves contain a flat disc obstructer. Plug Valves contains tapered cylindrical which acts as an obstructer. Two way and Three way ball valves contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which acts as an obstructer.
10. How many ports does a 3 way valve have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: A 3 way valve has total 3 ports. Generally it is used when a single incoming input fluid has to be distributed into two directions. In this type of configuration, one port is used as input port and other two ports are used as exit ports.
11. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10m 3 /hr which was reduced to 8m 3 /hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 800%
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 10m 3 /hr
Final flow rate: 8m 3 /hr
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 10m 3
Total volume of water flowing through the narrow valve: 8m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [/10]*100 => 20%
The flow rate reduced by 20% of the original rate.
12. How many exit ports does a 2 way valve have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: A 2 way valve has 1 exit port. It has total two ports, one entry port and one exit port. These ports are not fixed and can be interchanged. Both the port are separated by a different types obstructers.
13. Pneumatic actuator based valves use air to generate rotational force.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic actuator based valves use air to generate rotational force. This rotational force is used to turn the ball, disc or cylindrical type obstructer of the valves. The torque generated is directly proportional to the air pressure provided.
14. What is the rate of flow of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 10m/s?
a) 3.92 * 10 -3 m 3 /s
b) 3.92 * 10 -2 m 3 /s
c) 7.85 * 10 -2 m 3 /s
d) 7.85 * 10 -3 m 3 /s
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Diameter =10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π* 2
Area of cross section = 3.14* 2 =7.85*10 -3 m 2
Rate of flow = Area of cross section * Velocity of fluid
Rate of flow = 7.85*10 -3 m 2 * 10m/s
Rate of flow = 7.85* 10 -2 m 3 /s.
15. What is the final amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10m 3 /hr which was reduced by 80%?
a) 3m 3 /hr
b) 4m 3 /hr
c) 5m 3 /hr
d) 2m 3 /hr
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 10m 3 /hr
Reduction in flow = 80%
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 10m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [/10]*100 => 80/100
Final rate of flow of water = 2m 3 /hr.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “ Mechanical Actuating Systems – Types of Motion”.
1. Which type of motion is said to be covered by an object, moving back and forth in the same track?
a) Rectilinear type
b) Oscillatory type
c) Circular type
d) Helical type
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion covered by the object is said to be Oscillatory type, in this the object moves back and forth in the same track. The movement can be in parabolic or straight path but the object has to repeat the motion in the same path.
2. What is the type of motion covered by a ball, when thrown at an angle of 45 degree with the horizontal under gravity?
a) Rectilinear motion
b) Curvilinear motion
c) Oscillatory motion
d) Rotational motion
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion covered by a ball, when thrown at an angle of 45 degree with the horizontal under gravity is curvilinear motion. This type of motion is also called as projectile motion.
3. What is the type of motion covered by a particle in a plane?
a) One-Dimensional motion
b) Two-Dimensional motion
c) Three-Dimensional motion
d) Four-Dimensional motion
Answer: b
Explanation: The particle moving in the plane is said to cover two-dimensional motion. Since a particle has no dimensions, and a plane has only dimensions length and breadth, therefore the type of motion is two dimensional.
4. What does the gradient of a displacement time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: a
Explanation: Gradient of a displacement time graph depicts the velocity of the object. It shows how much displacement is covered by an object in certain interval of time. The gradient of a distance time graph depicts the speed of the object.
5. The graph of a displacement time graph depicting an object at rest is parallel to X-axis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The graph of a displacement time graph depicting an object at rest is parallel to X-axis. It is so because at any interval of time the displacement of the object is zero but the time increases constantly .
6. Translatory motion and rectilinear motions are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Translatory motion and rectilinear motions are not same. In rectilinear motion, the object has to move in a straight line. But in translator motion, all the points of the object has to move in same direction, be it in a straight line or in any other orientation.
7. What does RPM stand for?
a) Revolution per milliseconds
b) Revolution per minute
c) Rotation per minute
d) Rotation per millisecond
Answer: b
Explanation: RPM stands for revolution per minute. It is the most commonly used unit in motor appliances and motor vehicles for denoting the speed of the crank shaft in the engine.
8. A object is said to be in motion if it’s_______ changes with respect to time.
a) Permittivity
b) Permeability
c) Size
d) Position
Answer: d
Explanation: A object is said to be in motion if it’s position changes with respect to time. This is the most common and widely used definition used to define motion. For an object to be in motion the position of an object recorded at different intervals of time should be different.
9. Rectilinear motion refers to a motion of an object in ________
a) Straight line
b) Circular Path
c) Tangential Path
d) Non-Linear path
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectilinear motion refers to a motion of an object in straight line. When an object moves in a straight line the motion is said to be rectilinear motion of that object.
10. Which is a motion sensor?
a) Piezoelectric sensor
b) PIR sensor
c) MPU 6050
d) Node MCU
Answer: b
Explanation: PIR sensor is a motion sensor. PIR stands for Passive Infrared. This sensor can detect the presence of an object if it is in motion in a given range. The infrared emitted by warm objects is detected by these sensors, which is used to estimate the position of object.
11. What does the gradient of a distance time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: d
Explanation: Gradient of a distance time graph depicts the speed of the object. It shows how much distance is covered by an object in certain interval of time. The gradient of a displacement time graph depicts the velocity of the object.
12. What is the nature of graph of displacement time graph depicting an object with uniform velocity?
a) Constant
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) Exponential
Answer: a
Explanation: The displacement time graph depicting an object with uniform velocity is constant. It is because, in uniform motion, the displacement covered by the object is same in equal interval of time.
13. What is the SI unit of velocity?
a) m/s 2
b) m/s
c) km/hour
d) km/hour 2
Answer: b
Explanation: The SI unit of velocity is m/s. The SI unit of speed is also m/s. The SI unit of acceleration is m/s 2 .
14. What does the gradient of a velocity-time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
Answer: c
Explanation: Gradient of a velocity-time graph depicts the acceleration of the object. It shows how much is the velocity an object in different intervals of time. The gradient of a speed-time graph also depicts the acceleration of the object.
Answer: b
Explanation: Area under velocity-time graph depicts the displacement of the object. It shows how much the object has displaced in different intervals of time. The area speed-time graph depicts the distance covered by the object.
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This set of Mechatronics online test focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Degree of Freedom”.
1. What is Degree of freedom?
a) Total number of observations
b) Total number of independent constraints
c) Total number of observations minus the total number of independent constraints
d) Total number of independent constraints minus the total number of observations
Answer: c
Explanation: Degree of Freedom is the total number of observations minus the total number of independent constraints. It defines the mobility and the possible number of movements that can be achieved by a system.
2. Degree of freedom is denoted by which Greek symbol?
a) α
b) λ
c) v
d) β
Answer: c
Explanation: “Degrees of Freedom” is denoted by the Greek symbol ν . The abbreviation “d.f” is commonly used to denote the degree of freedom in most of the books and writings. Degree of freedom is a quantity that represents the mobility of a system.
3. What is the statistical formula of degree of freedom?
a) df = n 2
b) df = 2*n
c) df = n-1
d) df = (n 2 )-1
Answer: c
Explanation: The statistical formula of degree of freedom is given by df=n-1 . In statistics degree of freedom represents that can be varied without violating the constraints.
4. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 2 equations are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom = 5 – 2; therefore degree of freedom = 3.
5. Degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number of variables.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that can be varied without violating the constraints. So by subtracting number of equations from number of variables we can get the number of independent variables.
6. The degree of freedom of all the gases is same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of all the gases is not same. It depends on the number of atoms present in a molecule. The degree of freedom for mono-atomic gases is 3, for di-atomic gases it is 5 and for tri-atomic gases it is 6.
7. How many degrees of freedom are present in a bionic arm?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 7
Answer: d
Explanation: Bionic arm consists of 7 degrees of freedom. The 7 degrees of freedom include shoulder joint that has 3 degrees of freedom, elbow joint has 1 degree of freedom, forearm with 1 degree of freedom and wrist with 2 degrees of freedom.
8. What will be the degree of freedom for two given independent samples whose sizes are N1 and N2 respectively?
a) N1+N2
b) N1-N2
c) -2
d) /2
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom for two given independent samples whose sizes are N1 and N2 respectively is given by -2. This method is mostly used while statistical calculating of the degree of freedom.
9. What is the degree of freedom of mono-atomic gases?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom of mono-atomic gases is 3. Mono-atomic gases have only one atom in the molecule. This molecule can move in any direction in the space; therefore it has 3 degrees of freedom.
10. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 3 equations are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 2
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom = 5 – 3; therefore degree of freedom = 2.
11. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 4 equations are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom = 5 – 4; therefore degree of freedom = 1.
12. What is the degree of freedom of di-atomic gases?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of di-atomic gases is 5. Di-atomic gases have two atoms in the molecule. This molecule can move in any direction in the space; therefore it has 3 translational degrees of freedom. Also it can rotate in clockwise or anti clockwise direction which gives it additional 2 rotational degrees of freedom. So it has total 5 degrees of freedom.
13. What is the degree of freedom of tri-atomic gases?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom of tri -atomic gases is 6. Tri -atomic gases have three atoms in the molecule. This molecule can rotate in clockwise or anti clockwise direction from any of the three co-ordinate axis. So it has total 6 degrees of freedom.
14. What is the degree of freedom of Ozone?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom of Ozone gases is 6. The six degrees of freedom constitute of three rotational degrees of freedom and three translational degrees of freedom. Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule and the atoms are arranged in non-linear fashion.
15. What is the degree of freedom of Oxygen molecule?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of Oxygen molecule is 5. The five degrees of freedom constitute of two rotational degrees of freedom and three translational degrees of freedom. The molecular formula of oxygen is O2, so it a diatomic molecule and hence the degree of freedom is 5.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – KInematic Chains”.
1. Which Equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a system?
a) Gruebler’s equation
b) Fourier Transform
c) Simon’s equation
d) Maxwell’s equation
Answer: a
Explanation: Gruebler’s equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a system. This equation is used to determine the degree of freedom of planar linkages that are joined with a common joint.
2. Which combination of pairs forms compound joints?
a) Higher pair-Higher pair combination
b) Higher pair-Lower pair combination
c) Lower pair-Lower pair combination
d) Universal pair-Lower pair combination
Answer: b
Explanation: A compound joint is a combination of higher pair and lower pair. These pairs are combined according to the requirement of the design. The arrangement of these combinations can be altered to obtain robust joints.
3. Which kinematics is used to calculate the joint parameter which will be used to place at the end of the kinematic chain?
a) Forward Kinematics
b) Reverse Kinematics
c) Inverse Kinematics
d) Backward Kinematics
Answer: c
Explanation: Inverse kinematics is used to calculate the joint parameter which will be used to place at the end of the kinematic chain. It is a mathematical process that is generally used in animating the skeleton of a character.
4. Which kinematics is used to calculate the position of end-effector from some specified values?
a) Forward Kinematics
b) Reverse Kinematics
c) Inverse Kinematics
d) Backward Kinematics
Answer: a
Explanation: Forward kinematics is used to calculate the position of end-effector from some specified values. It is a kinematic equation, generally used in robots for the gripping purpose of any object.
5. Gruebler’s equation can be used to determine degree of freedom of non planar linkages.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Gruebler’s equation cannot be used to determine degree of freedom of non planar linkages. It can be used to determine the degree of freedom of planar linkages that are joined with a common joint.
6. Cam joint is a lower pair.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cam joint is not a lower pair. It is an example of higher pair. In these types of pairs the contact between the members has a line or point geometry. These pairs experience high stress at the point of contact due to very less area of contact.
7. Hinge joint is an example of higher pair.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Hinge joint is not an example of higher pair. It is an example of lower pair. The members of lower pairs have common mating surface. Hinge joint has a considerable amount of contact area, so it is an example of lower pair.
8. What does degree of freedom in a kinematic chain denotes?
a) Total parameters of kinematic chain
b) Length of kinematic chain
c) Joints in kinematic chain
d) Type of kinematic chain
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom represents parameters that are used to define the configuration of a kinematic chain. It also represents the mobility or the total possible movements of a kinematic chain.
9. What is the joint called if only four links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary joint
d) Quad-joint
Answer: c
Explanation: When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary joint. When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Ternary joint. When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary joint. Bi-joint does not exist.
10. Who is termed as the father of kinematics?
a) Nick brown
b) Franz Reuleaux
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Billy Stern
Answer: b
Explanation: Franz Reuleaux is termed as the father of kinematics. He was German mechanical engineer and a lecturer at the Berlin Royal Technical Academy born on September 30, 1829. He was later declared as the president of the academy.
11. What is the joint called if only three links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary
d) Tri-joint
Answer: b
Explanation: When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Ternary joint. When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary joint. When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary joint. Tri-joint does not exist.
12. Members of lower pairs have line geometry.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Members of lower pairs do not have line geometry. They have plane geometry. They have a large area of contact; therefore the stress at the area of contact is less. Members of higher pairs have line or point geometry.
13. Lower pairs are the pairs that are joined together with surface contact between them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Lower pairs are the pairs that are joined together with surface contact between them. There are two types of pair’s lower pairs and higher pairs. The members of higher pairs have a line or point geometry.
14. Which equation represents Grubler’s equation?
a) F = 3-2l-h
b) F = 2-2l-h
c) F = 2-3l-h
d) F = 3-2l-2h
Answer: a
Explanation: F = 3-2l-h represents Grubler’s equation. . This equation is used to determine the Degree of freedom of a system.
15. What is the joint called if only two links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary joint
d) Bi-joint
Answer: a
Explanation: When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary joint. When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Ternary joint. When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary joint. Bi-joint does not exist.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Cams”.
1. Who invented Abalakov Cam?
a) GrueblerAbalakov
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Simons Abalakov
d) Reiston Abalakov
Answer: b
Explanation: Vitaly Abalakov was the inventor of Abalakov Cam. Vitaly Abalakov was a Soviet chemical engineer and a mountaineer who invented the mounted climbing equipment Abalakov Cam.
2. What is the full form of SLCD?
a) Spring loaded camming device
b)Spring loading camming device
c) Spring leaver camming device
d) Straight leaver camming device
Answer: a
Explanation: SLCD stands for “Spring loaded camming device”. They are rock climbing or mountaineering protection devices. It constitutes of several cams which are mounted on a common or adjacent axles which favours the rock climbers to climb easily.
3. Which cam is also known as barrel cam?
a) Disc cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
Answer: b
Explanation: Cylindrical cam is also known as barrel cam. In these type of cams the followers rides over the cylindrical surface of the cam. They are generally used to convert rotational motion to linear motion.
4. Which cam is also known as radial cam?
a) Disc cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
Answer: a
Explanation: Disc cam is also known as radial cam. This cam is also generally referred as plate cams. These cams are cut-outs of flat metal plates. The follower moves on a plane which is perpendicular to the camshaft axis.
5. The follower of a cylindrical cam is permanently attached to the cylinder surface.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The follower of a cylindrical cam is not permanently attached to the cylinder surface. The follower just touches the cylindrical surface and has a physical contact. The follower rides on the surface of the cam.
6. Cam joint is an example of lower pair.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cam joint is not a lower pair. It is an example of higher pair. In these types of pairs the contact between the members has a line or point geometry. These pairs experience high stress at the point of contact due to very less area of contact.
7. Which is the smallest circle that can be drawn on a cam profile?
a) Prime circle
b) Base circle
c) Addendum circle
d) Dedendum circle
Answer: b
Explanation: Base circle is the smallest circle that can be drawn on a cam profile. Prime circle is the circle that passes through the pith curve and its radius is larger than the base circle. Addendum and Dedendum circles are drawn in a gear.
8. What is the nature of the movement of follower in the constant lead cam?
a) Linear
b) Parabolic
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of the movement of follower in the constant lead cam is linear. The displacement of the lead is linear with respect to the rotation of the cam. In this type of configuration the lead remains stationary and just touches the surface of the rotating cam which gives it a linear motion.
9. Which cam follower experiences least sliding motion?
a) Knife edged
b) Roller Follower
c) Mushroom Follower
d) Flat faced Follower
Answer: b
Explanation: Roller Follower experiences least sliding motion. It is so because all other cam followers are stationary followers whereas roller followers have a roller built on it. So most of the sliding motion gets converted to rolling motion.
10. What is the nature of movement of the scroll plate present in the scroll chuck?
a) Linear
b) Parabolic
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of the movement of the scroll plate present in the scroll chuck is linear. The displacement of the lead is linear with respect to the rotation of the cam. It is a type of constant lead cam. In this type of configuration the lead remains stationary and just touches the surface of the rotating cam which gives it a linear motion.
11. Which type of cam is used in stereo phonograph?
a) Heart shaped cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
Answer: c
Explanation: Face cam is used in stereo phonograph. Face cams have followers rotating on the face of a disc. In stereo phonograph a disc is placed on which a constant lead follower rides. This follower acts as a tone arm helps in producing music from the phonograph.
12. Pin tumbler lock is an example of cylindrical cam.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pin tumbler lock is not an example of cylindrical cam. It is an example of linear cam. Linear cams are those types of cam in which the cam element moves in a straight line rather than rotating. In “Pin tumbler locks” the key moves straight inside the lock and the stationary follower rides over it.
13. The motion generated by a face cam is perpendicular to the motion of the rotation of the cam.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion generated by a face cam is not perpendicular to the motion of the rotation of the cam. It is parallel to the rotation of the cam. Face cams have followers rotating on the face of a disc; therefore the cam as well as the follower generated motion in same fashion.
14. Which cams are also known as drop cams?
a) Linear cams
b) Cylindrical cams
c) Face cams
d) Snail cams
Answer: d
Explanation: Snail cams are also known as drop cams. These cams have a snail like structure which is why they are called so. Also when it rotates the constant lead follower experiences a sudden drop due to the structure of cam which is why it is also called as drop cam.
15. Which cam is used in ordinary key locks?
a) Linear cams
b) Cylindrical cams
c) Face cams
d) Snail cams
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear cam is used in ordinary key locks. Linear cams are those types of cam in which the cam element moves in a straight line rather than rotating. In “Key locks” the key moves straight inside the lock and the stationary follower rides over it.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Gear and Gear Trains – 1”.
1. What is the module of a gear if its pitch diameter is 10mm and it contains 5 teeth?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Pitch diameter = 10mm
No. Of teeth=5 teeth
Module=Pitch diameter/No. Of teeth
Module=>10/5 =2.
2. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 30 teeth and diameter of the gear is 6 inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=30 teeth
Diameter=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
Pitch=30/6=5.
3. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 20 N and radius of the gear is 1m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 20Nm
d) 2.55Nm
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Tangential force=20N
Radius of the gear=1m
Torque=tangential force *Radius
Torque=20*1=>20Nm.
4. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 15m
c) 10m
d) 4m
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=30 teeth
Diameter=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
Pitch=30/6 = 5.
5. The pitch of a gear is defined as the number of teeth per unit pitch circle radius.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The pitch of a gear is not the number of teeth per unit pitch circle radius. It is defined as the number of teeth per unit pitch circle diameter. The diameter is taken in inches.
6. The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is called addendum.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is not called addendum. The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is called dedendum. Radial distance between addendum circle and pitch circle is called addendum.
7. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has 15 teeth and driven gear has 5 teeth?
a) 2:1
b) 3:1
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth of driver gear=15
No. Of teeth of driven gear=5
Velocity ratio=No. of teeth of driver gear/No. of teeth of driven gear
Velocity ratio => 15/5=3:1.
8. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 10N and radius of the gear is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Tangential force=10N
Radius of the gear=0.5m
Torque=tangential force *Radius
Torque=10*0.5 => 5Nm.
9. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
Answer: b
Explanation: 4m is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential force is 5N. Since the formula for torque is tangential force *Radius, so radius=Torque/Tangential force which gives radius = 20Nm/5m => 4m.
10. What is the module of a gear if its pitch diameter is 15mm and it contains 3 teeth?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Pitch diameter = 15mm
No. Of teeth=3 teeth
Module=Pitch diameter/No. Of teeth
Module=>15/3=5.
11. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has 20 teeth and driven gear has 10 teeth?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth of driver gear=20
No. Of teeth of driven gear=10
Velocity ratio=No. of teeth of driver gear/No. of teeth of driven gear
Velocity ratio => 20/10=2:1.
12. What is the speed ratio of two gears if the speed of the driver gear has 20 km/hr and driven gear has 10km/hr?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Speed of the driver gear=20km/hr
Speed of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Speed ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Speed ratio=>20/10=2:1.
13. What is the speed ratio of two gears if the speed of the driver gear has 25 km/hr and driven gear has 10km/hr?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Speed of the driver gear=25km/hr
Speed of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Speed ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Speed ratio=>25/10=5:2.
14. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 2:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: velocity ratio=2:5
Train value=1/
Train value=1/=5:2.
15. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 2:1?
a) 2:1
b) 1:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: velocity ratio=2:1
Train value=1/
Train value=1/=1:2.
This set of Mechatronics Quiz focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Gear and Gear Trains – 2”.
1. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:5
Velocity ratio=1/
Train value=1/=5:2.
2. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 1:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=1:5
Train value=1/
Train value=1/=5:1.
3. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of 20m/s and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=20km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/ speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>20/10=2:1.
4. What is the angular velocity of driven gear if the driver gear has angular velocity of 30m/s and velocity ratio of two gears is 3:2?
a) 10m/s
b) 20m/s
c) 30m/s
d) 40m/s
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=30 km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
3/2=30/Angular velocity of the driven gear
Angular velocity of the driven gear=20m/s.
5. Which gear cannot connect two parallel shafts?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Double helical gear
Answer: c
Explanation: Bevel gear cannot connect two parallel shafts. It is used to transmit torque or power between shafts that are not parallel to each other. Generally it is used to transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
6. Spur gears can transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Spur gears cannot transmit power between perpendicular shafts. These are simplest type of gear. It can transmit power between parallel shafts. Bevel gears are used to transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
7. Which gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Rack and pinion gear
Answer: d
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion. This setup contains a straight rack and a circular spur gear. When the spur gear moves, it drives the rack in rectilinear fashion.
8. Which gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
Answer: d
Explanation: Epicyclic gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”. It is called so because the driven gear revolves around the driver gear when the gear moves. The driver and the driven gear are connected to each other.
9. Which gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft?
a) Simple gear train
b) Helical gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
Answer: d
Explanation: Compound gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft. The size of the gears may or may not be same, but a single shaft must contain more than one gear to be called as compound gear train.
10. In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial. Reverted gear train is a type of compound gear train, where the shaft of the driver gear and driven gear must be parallel to each other.
11. Which gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear does not revolve driven gear around it?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear does not revolve driven gear around it. It is the mist simple and most commonly used gear train. The shafts of driver and driven gear are also parallel to each other.
12. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:7?
a) 2:1
b) 2: 7
c) 7:2
d) 5:1
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:7
Velocity ratio=1/
Train value=1/=7:2.
13. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of 15m/s and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=15km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>15/10=3:2.
14. Reverted gear train is also called as planetary gear train.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverted gear train is not called as planetary gear train. Planetary gear train is the other name of epicyclic gear train. They are called so because the driven gear revolves around the driver gear like the planets around moon.
15. Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator. Linear actuators are devices that can perform rectilinear motion. When the pinion is held stationary and revolved then the rack performs rectilinear motion.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Ratchet and Pawl”.
1. Who invented Ratchet wrench?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Robert Owen
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: c
Explanation: Robert Owen invented Ratchet wrench. Ratchet wrench is also known as socket wrench. It is widely used hand tool made for tightening or loosening of nuts and bolts present in furniture, electronics equipment etc.
2. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to a shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to a shaft is that; it allows unidirectional motion of shaft. It restricts the motion in other direction. When the shaft tries to move in other direction then the pawl encounters the steeper slope of the ratchet which completely stops the rotational motion.
3. What is the minimum number of tooth, a ratchet should have?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 0
Answer: d
Explanation: It is not necessary for a ratchet to always have toothed surface. So the minimum number of tooth, a ratchet should have is zero. The surface of these ratchets is made with materials that have high coefficient of friction.
4. Which ratchets are often called as roller drive ratchets?
a) 72 teeth ratchet
b) Stepless ratchets
c) Round ratchet
d) Flip ratchet
Answer: b
Explanation: Stepless ratchets are often called as roller drive ratchets. They are also popularly known as gearless ratchets. The name itself suggests that they don’t have teeth. These ratchets are often used during the tightening or loosening of very small and slippery nuts and bolts.
5. The tooth of a ratchet is symmetrical.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The tooth of a ratchet is asymmetrical. Ratchets are toothed-wheels similar to the structure of gears; but they have asymmetrical tooth unlike gears. On one side of the tooth the slope is moderate while the other side has steeper slope.
6. The movement of the ratchet can be locked by pawl if it moves in opposite direction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The movement of the ratchet can be locked by pawl if it moves in opposite direction. Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth unlike gears; on one side of the tooth the slope is moderate while the other side has steeper slope. When the ratchet moves in opposite direction the pawl encounters the steep side of the tooth; therefore it cannot slide further and gets locked.
7. What is the maximum distance, a pawl can travel during the backward motion of a ratchet?
a) It is equal to the distance between two alternating teeth
b) It is equal to the distance between two adjacent teeth
c) It is equal to the radius of the ratchet
d) It is equal to the perimeter of the ratchet
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum distance, a pawl can travel during the backward motion of a ratchet is equal to the distance between two adjacent teeth. When the ratchet moves in opposite direction the pawl encounters the steep side of the tooth; therefore it cannot slide further and gets locked. So the maximum distance it can travel is the distance between two adjacent teeth.
8. Who invented Ratchet wheel, which was further used in power loom?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Robert Owen
d) William Radcliffe
Answer: d
Explanation: William Radcliffe invented Ratchet wheel, which was further used in power loom. He was born on the year 1760. He invented the ratchet wheel for his power loom which moved the cloth piece forward automatically.
9. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a spur gear which is attached to a shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
Answer: c
Explanation: The purpose of pawl, when it is used against a spur gear which is attached to a shaft is that; it does not allow motion of shaft. It will restrict the motion in both directions. When the shaft tries to move in any of direction then the pawl encounters the steeper slope of the spur gear which completely stops the rotational motion.
10. What does “12-point” indicates when the term 12 point reversible ratchet is used?
a) Its diameter is 12
b) Its radius is 12
c) It has 12 teeth
d) Its pitch is 12
Answer: c
Explanation: When the term 12 point reversible ratchet is used,the term “12-point” indicates that the ratchet or the gear mechanism used in the device has 12 teeths. The more the number of teeth; the smaller movements a device can achieve.
11. Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force in one direction only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force in one direction only. They are made in such a way that their mechanism allows it apply turning force in one direction only. Whereas it can move freely in opposite direction.
12. Backlash of a ratchet is the maximum distance covered by the pawl when the ratchet moves in opposite direction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Backlash of a ratchet is the not maximum distance covered by the pawl when the ratchet moves in opposite direction. It refers to the motion, when the ratchet moves in opposite direction and the pawl covers the maximum distance.
13. It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface of the ratchet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface of the ratchet. For reducing the backlash, often toothless ratchets are used. The surface of these ratchets is made with materials that have high coefficient of friction.
14. Which ratchets are often called as reversible ratchets?
a) 72 teeth ratchet
b) Stepless ratchets
c) 3 way ratchet
d) Flip ratchet
Answer: c
Explanation: 3 way ratchets are often called as reversible ratchets. These ratchets facilitate the customer with three different configurations. One configuration will disengage the ratchet configuration while the other two configurations allow the movement of the ratchet in either clockwise or anti-clockwise direction.
15. What is the difference between ratchet and spur gear?
a) Ratchets have bigger diameter than spur gear
b) Ratchets have lesser diameter than spur gear
c) Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth but spur gear have symmetrical tooth
d) Ratchets have symmetrical tooth but spur gear have asymmetrical tooth
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between ratchet and spur gear is that Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth but spur gear have symmetrical tooth. The asymmetrical shape of the tooth allows pawl to restrict the bidirectional movement of the ratchet.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Belt Drives”.
1. Which among the following operations does not use belt drives?
a) Mining
b) Logging
c) Road construction
d) Bicycles
Answer: d
Explanation: Applications such as mining, Logging, Road construction and many other applications make use of belt drives including industrial applications. Bicycles are constructed with the help of chain drives.
2. Which among the following is a type of belt drive?
a) Silent
b) Roller
c) Open
d) Pintle
Answer: c
Explanation: Open belt drive is a type of belt drive in which both the pulleys are driven and driving rotate in the same direction. The angle of contact is less. The other options are examples of chain drives.
3. The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives. This is because in case of cross belt drives both driven and the driving pulley rotates in opposite directions.
4. Cars with interference engines use ____
a) timing belts
b) serpentine belts
c) chain drives
d) V belts
Answer: a
Explanation: Cars with interference engines uses timing belts which connects the crankshaft and camshaft which is used to keep them in sync. The other mentioned drives are not used for interference engines.
5. Which among the following is an advantage of using belt drives over chain drives?
a) Efficiency
b) Noise
c) Cost
d) Durability
Answer: b
Explanation: The greatest disadvantage of using chain drive is that it produces noise which can overcome by the use of belt drives. The other factors such as cost, durability and efficiency are good for chain drives.
6. The angle of contact is greater for open belt drives.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives. This is because in case of cross belt drives both driven and the driving pulley rotates in opposite directions.
7. The amount of power delivered does not depends on ____
a) velocity of belt
b) cost
c) tension
d) arc of contact
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of power delivered does not depend on the cost of the belt. The velocity of the belt, Tension and Arc the important factors on which the amount of power delivered depends upon.
8. Which among the following depends upon the friction between the belt and pulley?
a) Positive belts
b) Synchronous belts
c) Friction drive
d) Modern belts
Answer: c
Explanation: Friction drives depends upon the friction between the belt and pulley for transmitting power. V belts have friction multiplying effect and flat belts are the purest form of friction drives.
9. Which among the following has a toothed profile?
a) Synchronous belts
b) Modern belts
c) Link-type belts
d) Friction drive
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous belts have a toothed profile with the corresponding groove in the pulleys and it was the first teeth profile used on drives. It was of a trapezoidal shape.
10. What is the speed of medium drive?
a) 1000m/s
b) 22m/s
c) 100m/s
d) 500m/s
Answer: b
Explanation: Medium drives are used to transmit power at the speed of from 10m/s to 22m/s. Light drives are used to transmit small power at belt speed up to about 10m/s.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Chain Drives”.
1. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 24 teeth and radius of the gear is 6 inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=24 teeth
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*6=12 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/ Diameter
Pitch=24/12=2.
2. What is the number of teeth in a gear if pitch is 3.33 and radius of the gear is 3 inches?
a) 20
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*3=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
3.33 = Number of teeth/6
Number of teeth=6*3.33=>19.98
Now round off the value to the nearest decimal value which gives Number of teeth = 20.
3. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 20 N and radius of the gear is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=20 N
Radius of the gear = 0.5m
Torque = Tangential force*radius of the gear
Torque=20*0.5 => 10Nm.
4. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential force is 10N?
a) 5m
b) 15m
c) 10m
d) 2m
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=20Nm
tangential force=10N
torque=tangential force *Radius
so radius=Torque/Tangential force
radius=20Nm/10m=>2m.
5. Chain moves over belt drives.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Chain does not move over belt drives. It moves over gear drives. These gear drives constitute of spike like structures called teeth. These teeth get into the empty spaces of the chain and transmit torque.
6. Belt drives can slip.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Belt drives can slip. Since friction plays very important role in transmission of torque in belt drives, so there should be enough friction between belt and the drive so that it does not slip. Chain drives do not slip.
7. Which type of drive is used in motor vehicles, for transferring torque between two shafts present at a distance of more than one meter?
a) Chain drives
b) Belt Drives
c) Rope drives
d) Gear drives
Answer: a
Explanation: Chain drives are used in motor vehicles, for transferring torque between two shafts present at a distance of more than one meter. Since there should not be any slip, so we cannot use rope drive or belt drive. Gear drive does not slip, but it is suitable for transferring torque between two shafts present at very less distance.
8. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 10N and radius of the gear is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=10 N
Radius of the gear = 0.5m
Torque = Tangential force* radius of the gear
Torque=10*0.5 => 5Nm.
9. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=20Nm
tangential force=5N
torque=tangential force *Radius
so radius=Torque/Tangential force
radius=20Nm/5m=>4m.
10. Which type of joints connects the links of a chain?
a) Stationary joints
b) Pin joints
c) Bolted joints
d) Pivot joints
Answer: b
Explanation: Pin joints connect the links of a chain. Each link of the chain has got its two sides connected with other links with the help of pin joints. These joint allows free movement of the links, which is collectively known as a chain.
11. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 20 teeth and radius of the gear is 2 inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=20 teeth
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*2=4 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/ Diameter
Pitch=20/4=5.
12. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 12N and radius of the gear is 0.2m?
a) 2.4 Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=12 N
Radius of the gear = 0.2m
Torque = Tangential force* radius of the gear
Torque=12*0.2 => 2.4 Nm.
13. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 12Nm and the tangential force is 3N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=12Nm
tangential force=3N
torque=tangential force *Radius
so radius=Torque/Tangential force
radius=12Nm/3m=>4m.
14. A partially circular chain has perimeter of 10cm and is made up of 2 cm links. How many links are present in total?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 12m
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Perimeter of circular chain = 10cm
Length of each link = 2cm
Number of links = Perimeter/Length of each link
Number of links = 10/2 => 5 links.
15. A chain is kept in square fashion with one of its side equal to 5 cm and is made up of 2 cm links. How many links are present in total?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 12m
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Length of one side of square chain = 5cm
Perimeter of square=4*5=>20
Length of each link = 2cm
Number of links = Perimeter/Length of each link
Number of links = 20/2 => 10 links.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Bearings”.
1. Who patented the first ball bearing?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: c
Explanation: Philip Vaughan patented the first ball bearing. He was an iron master and welsh inventor who designed the first ball bearing in the year 1794 at Carmarthen. His design was the first modern design that depicted the balls running along the groove in axle assembly.
2. What is the principle behind the working of magnetic bearing?
a) Maxwell’s second law
b) Electromagnetic suspension
c) Lenz law
d) Flemings Right hand thumb rule
Answer: b
Explanation: The principle behind the working of magnetic bearing is Electromagnetic suspension. It is based on the electromagnetic induction of eddy current in rotating conductor. It has no physical moving part inside it and is able to achieve very high speeds.
3. Which bearing is also called as thrust bearing?
a) Radial bearing
b) Axial bearing
c) Tangential bearing
d) Snail drop bearing
Answer: b
Explanation: Axial bearing is also called as thrust bearing. These bearings are often designed to resist the force in the same direction as of the shaft. And these loads are called as axial loads or thrust loads.
4. Which type of bearing can achieve highest speed?
a) Ball bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Magnetic bearing
d) Tapered roller bearings
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnetic bearing can achieve highest speed. These bearings can revolve at very high speed of around 50,000 to 60,000 rpm without getting damaged. It is so because it has no moving part inside it. It works on the principle of electromagnetic suspension. Normal ball or roller bearing cannot achieve this speed without getting damaged.
5. Radial ball bearing is also called as roller bearing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Roller bearing and radial ball bearings are not same. They are two different types of bearing that have different inbuilt mechanism. Ball bearings use metallic balls between the inner and outer races whereas roller bearings use cylindrical rods between the races.
6. Slot fill type ball bearings have higher load bearing capacity than Conrad type ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Slot fill type ball bearings have higher load bearing capacity than Conrad type ball bearing. It is so because notches are present on the inner and outer surfaces of outer and inner race respectively. This facilitates more balls more ball to fit in the same amount of space which increases the load bearing capacity.
7. Which type of bearing has axial length at least 4 times the length of the diameter?
a) Tapered roller bearing
b) Needle roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearing
d) Thrust roller bearing
Answer: a
Explanation: Needle roller bearing has axial length at least 4 times the length of the diameter. These bearings have extremely small diameters. The rollers or the cylindrical rods used in it resemble a needle which is why it is known as needle roller bearing.
8. Which type of bearing has a frustum shape assembly?
a) Tapered roller bearing
b) Needle roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearing
d) Thrust roller bearing
Answer: a
Explanation: Tapered roller bearing has a frustum shape assembly. It is often termed as cup and cone assembly. Its shape resembles the shape of a frustum. These bearings can bear high axial and radial loads but provides moderate revolution speed.
9. Who invented Conrad style ball bearing?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Conrad
Answer: d
Explanation: Robert Conrad invented Conrad style ball bearing. These bearings are named after the inventor. These bearing are most familiar and most common type ball bearing used in most of the day to day appliances. They can withstand both radial and axial loads.
10. Which type of bearing has a frustum of a cone shaped roller inside it?
a) Tapered roller bearing
b) Needle roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearing
d) Thrust roller bearing
Answer: a
Explanation: Tapered roller bearing has a frustum of a cone shaped roller inside it. These rollers are also referred as taper rollers. These bearings can bear high axial and radial loads but provides moderate revolution speed.
11. Single row deep groove ball bearing can bear more radial load than double row deep groove ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Single row deep groove ball bearing cannot bear more radial load than double row deep groove ball bearing. Double row bearing can bear more radial load as well as axial load than single row bearing. Single row deep groove bearing can provide higher speed than double row ball bearing as it experiences lesser frictional force.
12. Ball bearing is preferred over roller bearings when the bearing has to bear huge load.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Ball bearing is not preferred over roller bearing when the bearing has to bear huge load. Rather roller bearings are preferred for these kinds of application. It is so because roller bearings have larger area of contact than ball bearings which helps in easy distribution of load throughout the bearing.
13. Ball bearings provide higher rotational speed than roller bearing of same size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ball bearings provide higher rotational speed than roller bearing of same size. It is so because Ball bearings have lesser area of contact than roller bearings. Therefore it experiences lesser frictional force than roller bearings which helps ball bearings to achieve higher speed.
14. When was the first ball bearing patented?
a) 1792
b) 1794
c) 1892
d) 1894
Answer: b
Explanation: The first ball bearing was patented in the year 1794. Philip Vaughan was the first who was awarded with the first patent of modern ball bearing. He was an iron master and welsh inventor whose design depicted the balls running along the groove in axle assembly.
15. Which type of bearing has no moving parts inside it?
a) Ball bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Magnetic bearing
d) Tapered roller bearings
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnetic bearing has no moving parts inside it. These bearings can revolve at very high speed of around 50,000 to 60,000 rpm without getting damaged. Normal ball or roller bearing cannot achieve this speed without getting damaged.
This set of Mechatronics online quiz focuses on “Mechanical Actuating Systems – Preloading”.
1. What is the type of preload called when a bearing experiences a stress due to negative clearance?
a) Fastener preload
b) Bearing preload
c) Testing preload
d) Stress preload
Answer: b
Explanation: When a bearing experiences a stress due to negative clearance then it is a type of bearing preload. These types of preload increases the bearing rigidity and helps in maintaining actual radial and axial position for displacement.
2. What is the strain on an object, when a force of 3 Newton is applied on it and it expands the length of the object from 4cm to 6 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:-
Force applied=3 N
Original length=4cm
New length=6 cm
Extended length=New length-Original length
Extended length=6-4=>2cm
Strain = Extended length/Original length
Strain =2cm/4cm=>0.5.
3. What is the ratio of stress to strain called?
a) Youngs Modulus
b) Bulks Modulus
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Modulus of rigidity
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of stress to strain is called as Youngs Modulus. It is a mechanical property that measures the stiffness of a body. It establishes a relationship between stress and strain of a body. The youngs modulus graph or the stress-strain graph of a body showing elastic property is a straight line which shows the stress is proportional to strain.
4. What is the unit of stress?
a) Meter
b) Newton/Meter
c) Newton
d) Pascal
Answer: d
Explanation: The unit of stress is Pascal. Stress is defined as the ratio of internal force of a material to resist deformation to the area of impact. Mathematically this gives out the unit as Newton/meter 2 which is also termed as “Pascal”.
5. Pressure and stress are same as both are defined as force per unit area.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pressure and stress are not same even if both are defined as force per unit area. The word “force” in pressure is the external force applied on a body, whereas “force” in the definition of stress refers to the internal force of a material to resist deformation.
6. Stress on a body occurs only when compressive force act on it.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Stress on a body occurs not only when compressive force act on it; but also when sheer or expanding forces are applied. Stress occurs on a body when any force is applied irrespective of the direction of the force.
7. What is the unit of strain?
a) Meter
b) Newton/Meter
c) Newton/Meter 2
d) No unit
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain has no unit. It is so because it is the ratio of two lengths. Strain is defines as the ratio of extended length of an object to its original length. Since both numerator and denominator have the unit of length, therefore they cancel out each other and thus strain has no unit.
8. What is the strain on a hook of a hanger, when its length expands from 5cm to 6 cm due to a hanging load?
a) 0.2
b) 0.5
c) 1.2
d) 0.3334
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:-
Original length=5cm
New length=6cm
Extended length=New length-Original length
Extended length=6-5=>1cm
Strain = Extended length/Original length
Strain =1cm/5cm=>0.2.
9. What is the value of stress that occurs on an object when a force of 5 Newton is applied perpendicularly to an area of 1meter 2 ?
a) 2 Newton/meter 2
b) 5 Newton/meter 2
c) 1.2 Newton/meter 2
d) 1 Newton/meter 2
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:-
Force applied=5 N
Area of impact=1meter 2
Stress = Force applied/Area of impact
Stress = 5 N/1meter 2 =>5 N/meter 2 .
10. What is the strain on a hanging load, when a force of 1 Newton is applied on it and it expands the length of the object from 9cm to 12 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1.2
d) 0.3334
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:-
Force applied=1 N
Original length=9cm
New length=12 cm
Extended length=New length-Original length
Extended length=12-9=>3cm
Strain = Extended length/Original length
Strain =3cm/9cm=>0.3334.
11. Preloads can avoid resonance due to external disturbances.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Preloads can avoid resonance due to external disturbances. These preloads can avoid harmful or the damage causing resonance by tensioning and increasing the natural frequency of the structure.
12. Pressure and stress both have same unit “Pascal”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure and stress both have same unit “Pascal”. The word “force” in pressure is the external force applied on a body, whereas “force” in the definition of stress refers to the internal force of a material to resist deformation. But mathematically they have same formula Force/unit area which gives their units as Newton/meter 2 or “Pascal”.
13. Sheer stress occurs when a body expands due to external force.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Sheer stress does not occur when a body expands due to external force. When a body expands due to external force it undergoes tensile stress. Sheer stress occurs when there is slippage along the plane parallel to the direction of imposed stress and a deformation in the shape of the object occurs.
14. What is the nature of the stress-strain graph of an elastic body?
a) Asymptotic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Non-Linear
Answer: b
Explanation: The nature of the stress-strain graph of an elastic body is Linear. The youngs modulus graph or the stress-strain graph of a body showing elastic property is a straight line which shows the stress is proportional to strain.
15. What is the strain on a hanging load, when a force of 5 Newton is applied on it and it expands the length of the object from 8cm to 12 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Force applied=5 N
Original length=8cm
New length=12 cm
Extended length=New length-Original length
Extended length=12-8=>4cm
Strain = Extended length/Original length
Strain =4cm/8cm=>0.5.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Basic Principles of Electrical Switching”.
1. How many terminals does a GTO switch has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: A GTO switch has total 3 terminals. One terminal is a gate terminal and other two terminals are anode and cathode terminal respectively. It is a bipolar semiconductor switching device.
2. What is the full form of DPDT with respect to switches?
a) Double pull double throw
b) Double pole double throw
c) Double pull dual throw
d) Dual pole dual throw
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of DPDT is “Double pole double throw” with respect to switches. This type of switches has two inputs and four outputs. These switches are widely used in the robotic sector due to its versatile nature.
3. What is the full form of DIAC with respect to switches?
a) Diode alternating current
b) Dipole alternating current
c) Dual alternating current
d) Direct alternating current
Answer: a
Explanation: The full form of DIAC is “Diode alternating current” with respect to switches. It is a two terminal, bidirectional switching device. Since it is bi-directional, therefore it does not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal.
4. Which is a type of solid state switch?
a) NPN Diode
b) Bipolar junction transistor
c) DPDT Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: b
Explanation: Bipolar junction transistor is a type of solid state switch. Theses switches have no moving parts and no physical contacts which is why they are called so. They are also called as electronic switch.
5. DIAC switch has three terminals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC switch does not have three terminals. It is a two terminal, bidirectional switching device. Since it is bi-directional, therefore it does not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal.
6. TRIAC is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: TRIAC is a bi-directional switching device. They are often used as motor driver or motor controller to control the revolution speed of the motor shaft. They are even capable of controlling AC power.
7. Which is an example of pressure switch?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
Answer: b
Explanation: XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. It is manufactured by “SCHNEIDER ELECTRIC”. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. BMP180 is an example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor.
8. Which is an example of temperature switch?
a) KSD9700
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
Answer: a
Explanation: KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. It has 250 volt 5 ampere input rating. It has an operating temperature of up to 150°C. BMP180 is an example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
9. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in a water tank and perform suitable switching action?
a) Flow Switch
b) Float switch
c) DPDT Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: b
Explanation: Float switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in a water tank and perform suitable switching action. These switches are mainly used to control the AC and DC water pumps. When the water exceeds a certain limit the floating element of the switch moves along with it and triggers the switch to act accordingly.
10. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object by its weight?
a) SPST Switch
b) Limit switch
c) DPDT Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: b
Explanation: Limit switch is used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object. These switches are usually used to detect the presence or absence of the object. They have a flexible arm which is responsible for the switching action.
11. A GTO switch is a unipolar device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A GTO switch is not a unipolar device. It is a bipolar, three terminal semiconductor switching device. It uses both electrons and holes for the conduction of current through it.
12. DIAC is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC is a bi-directional switching device. . It is a two terminal switching device that does not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal. It can be used regardless of the identification of anode and cathode terminal.
13. Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch. This configuration of transistor is widely used in the electronic industry. A small base current can control comparatively large emitter to collector current.
14. Which switch can be used to rotate a DC motor in both clockwise and anti-clock wise direction?
a) SPST Switch
b) DPST Switch
c) DPDT Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: c
Explanation: DPDT Switch can be used to rotate a DC motor in both clockwise and anti-clock wise direction. These switches are mostly preferred while making a remote controlled car projects.
15. What is the full form of SPDT with respect to switches?
a) Single pull double throw
b) Single pole double throw
c) Single pull dual throw
d) Singular pole dual throw
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of SPDT is “Single pole double throw” with respect to switches. This type of switches has one input and two outputs. These switches are versatile in nature as it facilitates with two output terminal form a single input.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “ Electrical Actuating Systems – Solenoids”.
1. Which type of coil is a solenoid?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrical
c) Mechanical
d) Chemical
Answer: a
Explanation: Solenoid is an electromagnetic coil. When an electric current is supplied to the solenoid, the magnetic field is induced in it and due to this the spool shifts to the selected position.
2. Iron is used in solenoids for ____
a) increasing the magnetic field strength
b) increasing the electric field strength
c) decreasing the magnetic field strength
d) decreasing the electric field strength
Answer: a
Explanation: The iron is used in solenoids for increasing the magnetic field strength. This is because of the ferromagnetic property of the iron. All ferromagnetic materials help to increase the magnetic property of an object.
3. The number of turns of the solenoid is inversely proportional to the magnetic field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The mentioned statement is false as the number of turns of the solenoid is directly proportional to the magnetic field. So as the number of turns increases, the magnetic field of the solenoid will increase accordingly and as it decreases, the magnetic field turns weak.
4. What is the relation between the current and the magnetic field?
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Independent of each other
d) No relation
Answer: a
Explanation: The relation between the current and magnetic field of a solenoid is that the current and the magnetic field are directly proportional to each other. The magnetic field increases or decreases according to the increase or decrease in the value of the current.
5. What is the relation between the magnetic field and the number of turns of a solenoid?
a) Inversely proportional
b) Directly proportional
c) Independent of each other
d) No relation
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns in the solenoid. Dues the magnetic field of the solenoid increases and decreases with the increase and decrease in the number of turns respectively.
6. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field produced inside a solenoid is stronger than the magnetic field outside it, and it is uniform. The presence of a stronger magnetic field inside is due to the presence of the current inside the solenoid.
7. What is the direction of the magnetic field with respect to the current of a solenoid?
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) No fixed direction
d) Reverse direction
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction of the magnetic field generated in a solenoid acts always perpendicular to the direction of the applied current. The relation between the current and magnetic field of a solenoid is that the current and the magnetic field are directly proportional to each other.
8. Which among the following are not the applications of a solenoid?
a) Electromagnets
b) Medical
c) Industries
d) Vessels
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on its property’s solenoids have very vast applications. Some of the operations include used in electromagnets, medical, valves, industries etc. The best example is the car starting system where the transfers the current to different parts of the motor.
9. What is the formula for the turn density of a solenoid?
a) n=N/L
b) N=n/l
c) n=N.l
d) N=nN/l
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for the turn density of a solenoid is where n is the turn density, l is the length of the solenoid and N is the number of turns of the solenoid. The other options mentioned are not the appropriate answers.
10. How can we increase the magnetic field strength of a solenoid?
a) By increasing current
b) Removing iron from the field
c) By decreasing the current
d) By decreasing the number of turns
Answer: a
Explanation: The relation between the current and magnetic field of a solenoid is that the current and the magnetic field are directly proportional to each other. Dues as the current increases the magnetic field will increase. The other options mentioned will decrease the magnetic field.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electrical Actuating Systems – Electrical Relays”.
1. Who invented electrical relay?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: b
Explanation: Joseph Henry invented electrical relay. He was an American scientist an electromagnetism pioneer who invented the electrical relay in the year 1835. This relay was made in order to improve the capabilities of electric telegraph.
2. What is the full form of MCB?
a) Miniature contact breaker
b) Mini circuit breaker
c) Miniature circuit breaker
d) Mini contact breaker
Answer: c
Explanation: MCB stands for miniature circuit breaker. It is an automatic electro mechanical switching device which is used in most of the houses, apartments, industries etc. This device automatically breaks the circuit from the main power supply when excessive current passes through it.
3. Which electrical relay contact tip material has the highest electrical conductivity?
a) Silver
b) Alloy of silver and copper
c) Alloy of silver and tungsten
d) Alloy of silver and Nickel
Answer: a
Explanation: Silver electrical relay contact tip has the highest electrical conductivity among the all mentioned above. The electrical as well as thermal conductivity of silver is much higher than any of its alloy.
4. Which type of relay can be used to automatically switch between transmitter and receiver configuration from a same antenna setup?
a) Mercury relay
b) Latching relay
c) Force-guided contacts relay
d) Coaxial relay
Answer: d
Explanation: Coaxial relay can be used to automatically switch between transmitter and receiver configuration from a same antenna setup. These relays are often used to perform switching action from receiver to transmitter and vice versa when only one antenna is present.
5. Solid state relays face high arching problems.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Solid state relays do not face arching problems. Since solid state relays have no moving part therefore it does not face any arching problem. The arching problem of the ordinary electro mechanical relays was resolved by solid state relays.
6. Solid state relays have only one moving part which helps in switching between “ON” and “OFF” position.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Solid state relays have no moving parts. The mechanical switching system in the primitive electro mechanical relays was replaced by power transistors, thyristors or triac’s. No physical movement takes place in solid state relays.
7. Which type of snubber network is required at the output terminal of the solid state relays to protect the semiconductor from transient spikes and unwanted noises?
a) RC type
b) RL type
c) RLC type
d) LC type
Answer: a
Explanation: RC type of snubber network is required at the output terminal of the solid state relays to protect the semiconductor from transient spikes and unwanted noises. Snubber circuits are those circuits which are used to suppress the voltage spikes.
8. Which type of solid state relay turns “ON” when a minimum operating control voltage is applied and the load voltage nearly reaches zero?
a) Instant ON Relays
b) Zero-Switching Relays
c) Peak Switching Relays
d) Analog Switching Relays
Answer: b
Explanation: Zero-Switching Relays turn “ON” when a minimum operating control voltage is applied and the load voltage nearly reaches zero. Zero switching relays wait for the alternating wave to reach zero for the relay to turn on.
9. Who developed the first Solid state relay?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Walcraft engineers
c) Crydom engineers
d) Robert Conrad
Answer: c
Explanation: Crydom engineers developed the first Solid state relay. These relays were developed in the year 1972. Solid state relays are switching device that can switch “ON” and “OFF” positions by a small input voltage.
10. Which is an example of relay?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: d
Explanation: 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. It is manufactured by SCHNEIDER ELECTRIC /MAGNECRAFT. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor.
11. A good electrical relay contact tip should have higher arc resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A good electrical relay contact tip should have higher arc resistance. Too much arching or sparking can damage the contact tip. If the arching become severe, it can even weld the contact point which can led excess of current flow and can damage other components.
12. Relay and contactors perform different physical operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Relay and contactors do not perform different physical operation. They have same physical operation. The only difference is the rated voltage on which they work. Contractors are relays that perform switching operation at high voltage. Whereas relays perform switching operation at low voltage.
13. Electro mechanical relay’s needs to be manually turned “ON” and “OFF”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Electro mechanical relay’s needs to be manually turned “ON” and “OFF”. This is one of the biggest disadvantages of Electro mechanical relay’s . Also they can only switch small electric current.
14. Which type of relay contains a glass tube which contains an inert gas which is used to protect the contacts from corrosion?
a) Polarised relay
b) Solid-state relay
c) Contactor
d) Reed relay
Answer: d
Explanation: Reed relays contain a glass tube which contains an inert gas which is used to protect the contacts from corrosion. These contacts move on the principle of magnetic effect of electric current. These contacts act as electromagnets which helps them to perform switching operation.
15. Which electrical relay contact tip material has the highest thermal conductivity?
a) Silver
b) Alloy of silver and copper
c) Alloy of silver and tungsten
d) Alloy of silver and Nickel
Answer: a
Explanation: Silver electrical relay contact tip has the highest thermal conductivity among the all mentioned above. The thermal as well as electrical conductivity of silver is much higher than any of its alloy.
This set of Mechatronics MCQs focuses on “Electrical Actuating Systems – Representation of Output Devices”.
1. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Diode
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Transistor
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents Light emitting source. This symbol is generally used to represent a LED or any other light emitting source in the electrical circuit. It is usually used as an output device to represent the flow of current through a branch.
2. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Motor
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Multimeter
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents a Motor in an electric circuit. Motors are output device of a circuit that produces rotational motion. They convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. It works on the principle of Flemings left hand rule.
3. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Transistor
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents capacitor. Capacitor is a passive element which is used as an energy storing device in the electrical circuits. Capacitance of a capacitor is measured in farads. It is the SI unit of capacitance.
4. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) PNP Transistor
d) NPN Transistor
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents PNP Transistor. When an “N” type material is sandwiched between two “P” type materials, then a PNP transistor is formed. This “P” type material is actually doped with “N” type material.
5. A diode has no effect on any electric circuit if its terminals are reversed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A diode will affect the electric circuit if its terminals are reversed. It is so because its properties will completely change when its terminal are reversed. Since it is a unidirectional device so it will only allow current to flow in one direction only and blocks it from other direction.
6. What is the full form of FET?
a) Field effect thyristor
b) Field effect thermistor
c) Field effect transistor
d) Field effective transistor
Answer: c
Explanation: FET stands for field effect transistor. It is a three terminal semiconductor device namely; Source, drain and gate. It is a voltage controlled device its operation can be controlled by changing the input voltage.
7. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET
b) P channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) P channel depletion type MOSFET
d) N channel depletion type MOSFET
Answer: b
Explanation: This symbol represents a P channel enhancement type MOSFET. MOSFET stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s do not have inbuilt channels; the channels are induced by applying a voltage greater than the threshold voltage at the gate terminal.
8. Which passive element of a circuit is represented by a zig-zag line composed of sharp edged and even distributed alternating crests and troughs?
a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) Battery
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistor is a passive element of a circuit is represented by a zig-zag line composed of conical and even shaped alternating crests and troughs. The unit of resistance is ohm which is denoted by Greek letter omega.
9. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET
b) P channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) P channel depletion type MOSFET
d) N channel depletion type MOSFET
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents a P channel depletion type MOSFET. MOSFET stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s have inbuilt channels which is made up of “P” type material.
10. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET
b) P channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) P channel depletion type MOSFET
d) N channel depletion type MOSFET
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents an N channel enhancement type MOSFET. MOSFET stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s do not have inbuilt channels; the channels are induced by applying a voltage greater than the threshold voltage at the gate terminal.
11. A JFET is a current controlled device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A JFET is not a current controlled device. It is a voltage controlled device its operation can be controlled by changing the input voltage. A BJT is a current controlled device.
12. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Diode
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Transistor
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents Light emitting source. It is a two terminal component of an electric circuit which allows unidirectional flow of current. An ideal diode has zero forward bias resistance and infinite reverse bias resistance.
13. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Anode tube
d) Anonymous device
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents an Ammeter. Ammeters are used to measure the current flowing through a branch. They are placed in series with the circuit components in order to measure the branch current.
14. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET
b) P channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) P channel depletion type MOSFET
d) N channel depletion type MOSFET
Answer: d
Explanation: This symbol represents an N channel depletion type MOSFET. MOSFET stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s have inbuilt channels which is made up of “N” type material.
15. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) PNP Transistor
d) NPN Transistor
Answer: d
Explanation: This symbol represents NPN Transistor. When a “P” type material is sandwiched between two “N” type materials, then a NPN transistor is formed. This “N” type material is actually doped with “P” type material.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electrical Actuating Systems – Electrical Motors”.
1. Who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Oersted
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: c
Explanation: Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of electric current. He accidentally discovered this phenomenon in the year 1820. He proved this phenomenon with the deflecting needle of magnetic compass.
2. What is the working principle of DC motor?
a) Fleming’s right hand rule
b) Fleming’s left hand rule
c) Maxwell’s second law
d) Maxwell’s third law
Answer: b
Explanation: The working principle of motor Fleming’s left hand rule. It states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a magnetic field then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by Fleming’s left hand rule.
3. What is the full form of CPR with respect to motor movement?
a) Clocks per rotation
b) Counts per revolution
c) Counts per rotation
d) Clocks per revolution
Answer: b
Explanation: CPR stands for Counts per revolution with respect to motor movement. 2 square pulses are generated at a time by a typical motor encoder, CPR is the is the number of quadrature decode states that exists between these two square pulses.
4. How many leads does a 2 phase bipolar stepper motor have?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: A bipolar stepper motor has 4 leads. Bipolar stepper motors have two windings; one winding per stator phase. Each coil or winding has 2 leads. Therefore total 2 windings will have 4 leads.
5. Speed of an induction motor remains same even if we increase the rotor resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor does not remain same; it varies when we increase the rotor resistance. This method is called as rotor resistance speed control of induction motor. The motor speed decreases when we increase the rotor resistance. This method is not applicable for cage rotor type induction motor.
6. Speed control of an ac motor can be achieved by varying the input frequency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed control of an ac motor can be achieved by varying the input frequency. Usually AC motors run on a constant speed; this because of the constant voltage and constant frequency. Speed of an ac motor can be varied by changing the input voltage or frequency.
7. Which finger denotes the direction of current in Fleming’s left hand rule?
a) Middle finger
b) First finger
c) Thumb
d) Little finger
Answer: a
Explanation: Middle finger denotes the direction of current in Fleming’s left hand rule. Fleming’s left hand rule states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a magnetic field then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by Fleming’s left hand rule. Where First finger denotes the direction of magnetic field and thumb denotes the direction of force.
8. Which type of motor is not an encoder motor?
a) Stepper motor
b) Servo motor
c) BO motor
d) BLDC Drone motor
Answer: c
Explanation: BO motor is not an encoder motor. It does not require special types of encoders or motor drivers for running it. It can be simple be used by connecting the positive and negative terminal of the battery.
9. Who invented Induction motor?
a) Nicola Tesla
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Mark Henry
Answer: a
Explanation: Nicola Tesla invented Induction motor. He was a Serbian-American inventor born on 10 July 1856. He is very famous for his contribution towards modern alternating current supply systems. He is also well known for his contribution towards wireless power supply.
10. Which finger denotes the direction of magnetic field in Fleming’s left hand rule?
a) Middle finger
b) First finger
c) Thumb
d) Little finger
Answer: b
Explanation: First finger denotes the direction of magnetic field in Fleming’s left hand rule. Fleming’s left hand rule states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a magnetic field then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by Fleming’s left hand rule. Where middle finger denotes the direction of current and thumb denotes the direction of force.
11. Which is an example of motor driver?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) L298N
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: c
Explanation: L298N is an example of motor driver. It is a dual H-Bridge type motor driver. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch.
12. Which is an example of single H-bridge type motor driver?
a) DRV8829
b) XMPA06B2131
c) L298N
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: a
Explanation: DRV8829 is an example of single H-bridge type motor driver. It is manufactured by “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”. L298N is an example of dual H-Bridge type motor driver. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch.
13. AC motors do not have brushes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: AC motors do not have brushes. Due to the absence of brush mechanism AC motors have longer life expectancy. DC motors comes in two forms, Brushed and Brushless motors. DC motors without brushes are termed as BLDC motors.
14. How many windings does a 2 phase bipolar stepper motor have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: A 2 phase bipolar stepper motor has 2 windings. One winding is present for each phase. So, in total two windings are present for 2 phases. Each coil or winding has 2 leads. Therefore total 2 windings will have 4 leads.
15. Which finger denotes the direction of force in fleming’s left hand rule?
a) Middle finger
b) First finger
c) Thumb
d) Little finger
Answer: c
Explanation: Thumb denotes the direction of force in fleming’s left hand rule. Fleming’s left hand rule states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a magnetic field then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by Fleming’s left hand rule.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electrical Actuating Systems – AC Motors”.
1. Which type of device is a stepper motor?
a) Electromechanical
b) Electrochemical
c) Embedded system
d) Electromagnetic
Answer: a
Explanation: A stepper motor is an electromagnetic device which converts the electrical pulses into discrete mechanical movements. The shaft of the electrical motor
2. The speed of the rotation of the stepper motor depends on ________
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of input pulses. In the other options, the motor has full torque at standstill. The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. Solenoids are used as electrical actuators.
3. Stepper motors are extremely reliable.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There are no contact brushes in the motor, therefore, the Stepper motors are extremely reliable. The life of the motor depends only upon the life of the bearings. Wide ranges of rotational speed are possible.
4. Length of rotation is directly related to ____
a) Torque
b) Number of input pulses
c) Frequency of input pulses
d) Solenoid
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. In the other options, the speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of input pulses, the motor has full torque at standstill. Solenoids are used as electrical actuators.
5. Which among the following is not the type of a stepper motor?
a) Variable reluctance
b) Permanent magnet
c) Hybrid
d) Variable magnet
Answer: d
Explanation: Variable magnet is not the type of a stepper motor. Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. Permanent magnet stepper motors have a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. Hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed.
6. A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A stepper motor is a good choice whenever control movement is required. They can be used in the applications where there is a need to control rotation angle, speed, position and synchronism. Due to all these reasons, stepper motors are used in many different applications.
7. A soft iron multi-toothed rotor and wound stator is present in ___
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
Answer: b
Explanation: Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. When the stator windings are energized with DC current, the poles become magnetized, and the teeth of the rotor are attracted towards the energized stator poles, and hence the rotor rotates. The other motors present in the options do not consist of such elements.
8. Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
Answer: a
Explanation: The permanent magnet stepper motor has low cost and low-resolution type motor with the step angle of 7.5% to 15%. This type of stepper motor has a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. The other motors mentioned in the option do not have low cost as well as low redundancy.
9. Which among the following is a property of hybrid stepper motor?
a) Contains a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
b) Low cost and low-resolution motor
c) The better performance provided with respect to step resolution
d) Provides an increased magnetic flux
Answer: c
Explanation: A hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed, and this is more expensive than the other two stepper motors. This motor has advantages of both variable reluctance and permanent magnet stepper motors. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of other types of the stepper motor.
10. Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
a) Resolution required
b) Drive mechanism component required
c) Torque required
d) Speed
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the main selection criteria of a stepper motor. The selection criteria of a stepper motor include resolution required, drive mechanism component, operating pattern required such as sequencing, acceleration etc. and torque required.
11. What is the formula to calculate the step angle of a stepper motor?
a) /nph
b)
c)
d) /ph
Answer: a
Explanation: The step angle is given by /nph where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
12. What is the step angle of a hybrid stepper motor?
a) 0.9 degree to 3.6 degree
b) 0.9 degree to 7.0 degree
c) 0.1 degree to 1.0 degree
d) 1.0 degree to 0.9 degree
Answer: a
Explanation: Typical step angle of a hybrid stepper motor ranges from 0.9 degrees 3.6 degree that is steps per revolution. The step angle is given by /nph where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electrical Actuating Systems – AC Motors”.
1. Which type of device is a stepper motor?
a) Electromechanical
b) Electrochemical
c) Embedded system
d) Electromagnetic
Answer: a
Explanation: A stepper motor is an electromagnetic device which converts the electrical pulses into discrete mechanical movements. The shaft of the electrical motor.
2. The speed of the rotation of the stepper motor depends on ____
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of input pulses. In the other options, the motor has full torque at standstill. The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. Solenoids are used as electrical actuators.
3. Stepper motors are extremely reliable.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There are no contact brushes in the motor, therefore, the Stepper motors are extremely reliable. The life of the motor depends only upon the life of the bearings. Wide ranges of rotational speed are possible.
4. Length of rotation is directly related to to ____
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. In the other options, the speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of input pulses, the motor has full torque at standstill. Solenoids are used as electrical actuators.
5. Which among the following is not the type of a stepper motor?
a) Variable reluctance
b) Permanent magnet
c) Hybrid
d) Variable magnet
Answer: d
Explanation: Variable magnet is not the type of a stepper motor. Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. Permanent magnet stepper motors have a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. Hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed.
6. A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A stepper motor is a good choice whenever control movement is required. They can be used in the applications where there is a need to control rotation angle, speed, position and synchronism. Due to all these reasons, stepper motors are used in many different applications.
7. A soft iron multi-toothed rotor and wound stator is present in _______
a) permanent magnet stepper motor
b) variable reluctance stepper motor
c) hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
Answer: b
Explanation: Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. When the stator windings are energized with DC current, the poles become magnetized, and the teeth of the rotor are attracted towards the energized stator poles, and hence the rotor rotates. The other motors present in the options do not consist of such elements.
8. Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
Answer: a
Explanation: The permanent magnet stepper motor has low cost and low-resolution type motor with the step angle of 7.5% to 15%. This type of stepper motor has a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. The other motors mentioned in the option do not have low cost as well as low redundancy.
9. Which among the following is a property of hybrid stepper motor?
a) Contains a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
b) Low cost and low-resolution motor
c) The better performance provided with respect to step resolution
d) Provides an increased magnetic flux
Answer: c
Explanation: A hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed, and this is more expensive than the other two stepper motors. This motor has advantages of both variable reluctance and permanent magnet stepper motors. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of other types of the stepper motor.
10. Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
a) Resolution required
b) Drive mechanism component required
c) Torque required
d) Speed
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the main selection criteria of a stepper motor. The selection criteria of a stepper motor include resolution required, drive mechanism component, operating pattern required such as sequencing, accelerationetc. and torque required.
11. What is the formula to calculate the step angle of a stepper motor?
a) /nph
b)
c)
d) /ph
Answer: a
Explanation: The step angle is given by /nph where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
12. What is the step angle of a hybrid stepper motor?
a) 0.9 degree to 3.6 degree
b) 0.9 degree to 7.0 degree
c) 0.1 degree to 1.0 degree
d) 1.0 degree to 0.9 degree
Answer: a
Explanation: Typical step angle of a hybrid stepper motor ranges from 0.9 degrees 3.6 degree that is steps per revolution. The step angle is given by /nph where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electrical Actuating Systems – Induction Motor Speed Control”.
1. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its frequency is 60 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor=12
Frequency=60 Hz
Synchronous speed = 120f/P
Synchronous speed = 600 rpm.
2. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 500 rpm and has percentage slip of 4% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed = 500 rpm
percentage slip=4% =0.04
Speed = Ns*
Speed = 480 rpm.
3. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 10 poles and its synchronous speed is 720 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 40 Hz
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor=10
Synchronous speed = 720 rpm
Synchronous speed = 120f/P
Frequency =/120
Frequency=60 Hz.
4. Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input supply.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input supply. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120*f/P, where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of poles. And the Speed of induction motor is given by N = Ns* , where N represents the speed of induction motor, Ns represents the synchronous speed and s is the slip. Therefore it can be clearly seen that it is dependent on frequency of input supply.
5. Speed of an induction motor is independent of the number of stator poles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor is dependent of the number of stator poles. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120*f/P, where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of stator poles. And the Speed of induction motor is given by N = Ns* , where N represents the speed of induction motor, Ns represents the synchronous speed and s is the slip. Therefore it can be clearly seen that it is dependent on the number of stator poles.
6. Rotor rheostat speed control method can be used for controlling the speed of squirrel cage motors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Rotor rheostat speed control method cannot be used for controlling the speed of squirrel cage motors. It can only be used with the slip ring motors as an external resistance cannot be added to the squirrel cage motors.
7. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the number of stator poles increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
Answer: c
Explanation: The synchronous speed of the induction motor decreases if the number of stator poles increases. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120f/P, where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of poles. Therefore it can be clearly seen that, synchronous speed inversely proportional to the number of stator poles.
8. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the frequency of the supply increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
Answer: b
Explanation: The synchronous speed of the induction motor increases if the frequency of the supply increases. The synchronous speed of the induction motor is directly proportional to the input frequency. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120f/P, where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of poles. So if the frequency of the supply increases, then the synchronous speed also increases.
9. Which speed control method can only be applied to squirrel cage type induction motors?
a) Multiple Stator winding method
b) Rotor rheostat speed control method
c) Pole amplitude modulation method
d) Frequency control method
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple stator winding method can only be applied to squirrel cage type induction motors. Other all speed control methods can also be applied in slip ring type induction motors. Rotor rheostat speed control method can only be used for controlling the speed of slip ring type induction motors.
10. What does PAM stands for, in context to speed control method of induction motor?
a) Pole amplitude maintenance
b) Passive amplitude modulation
c) Pole amplification modulation
d) Pole amplitude modulation
Answer: d
Explanation: PAM stands for Pole amplitude modulation, in context to speed control method of induction motor. It is a speed control method of 3 phase induction motor in which the original sinusoidal wave is modulated by another sinusoidal wave having the different number of poles.
11. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 8 poles and its frequency is 40 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor=8
Frequency=40 Hz
Synchronous speed = 120f/P
Synchronous speed = 600 rpm.
12. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 9 poles and its frequency is 50 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 666.667 rpm
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor=9
Frequency=50 Hz
Synchronous speed = 120f/P
Synchronous speed = 666.667 rpm.
13. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 400 rpm and has percentage slip of 5% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed = 400 rpm
percentage slip=5%=0.05
Speed = Ns*
Speed = 380 rpm.
14. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its synchronous speed is 620 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 62 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 58 Hz
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor=12
Synchronous speed = 620 rpm
Synchronous speed = 120f/P
Frequency =/120
Frequency=62 Hz.
15. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 300 rpm and has percentage slip of 0.2% ?
a) 200 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 280 rpm
d) 294 rpm
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed = 300 rpm
percentage slip=5%=0.02
Speed = Ns*
Speed = 294 rpm.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Digital Logic Control”.
1. What is the output of 2 Input XNOR gate if both the inputs are same?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) 11
Answer: b
Explanation: The output of 2 Input XNOR gate is 1 if both the inputs are same. The output of the XNOR gate is 1 if both the inputs are logic 0 or logic 1. This is why they are called as equality detector.
2. Which gate is called as inequality detector?
a) 2 Input AND Gate
b) 2 Input NAND Gate
c) 2 Input XOR Gate
d) 2 Input XNOR Gate
Answer: c
Explanation: A 2 Input XOR gate is called as inequality detector. They are called so because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic one . Whereas when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic zero . Therefore, a 2 Input XOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
3. What is the IC number of Quad 2 Input OR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 7432
Answer: d
Explanation: The IC number of Quad 2 Input OR Gate is 7432. It is also referred as 74LS32. The Quad 2 Input OR Gate package consists of 4 OR gates. It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin.
4. What is the IC number of Quad 2 Input XOR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7486
c) 7408
d) 7432
Answer: b
Explanation: The IC number of Quad 2 Input XOR Gate is 7486. It is also referred as 74LS86. The Quad 2 Input OR Gate package consists of 4 OR gates. It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. It is also known as inequality detector.
5. NAND gate and NOR gate are universal logic gates.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: NAND gate and NOR gate are universal logic gates. These are called so because any type of basic or combinational logic gate can be made by a cluster of only NAND gates or NOR gates.
6. The output of 2 Input AND gate is Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The output of 2 Input AND gate is not Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1. Its output is logic 1 only when both the inputs of the AND gate is 1. The output of 2 Input OR gate is Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1.
7. What is the IC number of Quad 2 Input NAND Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7486
c) 7400
d) 7432
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC number of Quad 2 Input NAND Gate is 7400. The Quad 2 Input NAND Gate package consists of 4 NAND gates. It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. It is also called as universal gate.
8. What is the IC number of Quad 2 Input NOR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7400
d) 7432
Answer: b
Explanation: The IC number of Quad 2 Input NOR Gate is 7400. The Quad 2 Input NOR Gate package consists of 4 NOR gates. It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. It is also called as universal gate.
9. What is the IC number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of TTL logic family?
a) 4077
b) 7402
c) 74266
d) 7432
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of TTL logic family is 74266. The Quad 2 Input NOR Gate package consists of 4 XNOR gates. It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. 4077 is the IC number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of CMOS IC family.
10. What is the IC number of Quad 2 Input AND Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 74032
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC number of Quad 2 Input AND Gate is 7408. It is also referred as 74LS08. The Quad 2 Input AND Gate package consists of 4 NOT gates. It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin.
11. What is the minimum number of 2 Input NAND Gate required to make a 2 Input XOR gate?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum number of 2 Input NAND Gate required to make a 2 Input XOR gate is 4. This process is of making XOR gate using NAND gate is called realisation of XOR gate using NAND gate. NAND gate is a universal gate and can be used to design any logic gate.
12. XOR gate is an abbreviation of Executive OR Gate.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: XOR gate is not an abbreviation of Executive OR Gate. It is abbreviation for Exclusive-OR Gate. This gate is also known as inequality detector. They are called so because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic one. Whereas when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic zero. Therefore, a 2 Input XOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
13. What is the minimum number of 2 Input NOR Gates required to make a 2 Input XNOR gate?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum number of 2 Input NOR Gates required to make a 2 Input XNOR gate is 4. This process of making XNOR gate using NOR gate is called realisation of XNOR gate using NOR gate. NOR gate is a universal gate and can be used to design any logic gate.
14. What is the IC number of Hex Inverter?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 74032
Answer: a
Explanation: The IC number of Hex Inverter is 7404. It is also referred as 74LS04. The hex inverter package consists of 6 NOT gates. The output of NOT gate is logic 0 when the input is logic 1 and vice versa.
15. Which gate is called as equality detector?
a) 2 Input AND Gate
b) 2 Input NAND Gate
c) 2 Input XOR Gate
d) 2 Input XNOR Gate
Answer: d
Explanation: A 2 Input XNOR gate is called as equality detector. They are called so because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic Zero, but when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic one . Therefore, a 2 Input XNOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Digital Electronics and Systems – Microprocessors”.
1. An electronic component used by computers to do its work is ____
a) Microcontrollers
b) Microprocessors
c) Keyboard
d) Resistors
Answer: b
Explanation: An electronic component used by computers to do its work is microprocessors. It contains millions of small components like resistors, diodes etc. The other options are not appropriate choices.
2. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM, ROM, EEPROM are used as an external circuit in case of the microprocessor, but these are already embedded in a microcontroller. Due to the use of external circuits microprocessors are bulkier as compared to the microcontrollers which are more compact.
3. Microprocessors have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The microprocessors have generally large size and high cost. This is because there are several external devices attached to it according to the applications. The components used are costly as compared to the microcontrollers.
4. Which among the following are not the applications of microprocessor?
a) Word processing
b) Calculation
c) Washing machines
d) Communication
Answer: c
Explanation: Washing machines generally depends on microcontrollers. The applications of a microprocessor are in communication or video display, communication via the internet, word processing, calculation and many other applications.
5. Von Neumann architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
Answer: b
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microprocessors is Von Neumann architecture. The is single memory space for both data and the program.
6. Quartz and metals are not used in microprocessors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors are made up of various components which involve metals, quartz and various other components and chemicals. The microprocessors have generally large size and high cost.
7. Which among the following have less number of registers?
a) Microprocessors
b) Microcontrollers
c) CPU
d) Input devices
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors have less number of registers and therefore many of the functions are memory based whereas the microcontrollers have a number of registers and therefore the programs are easier to write.
8. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
Answer: d
Explanation: In compact systems, we can use Microcontrollers and hence microcontrollers are more effective as compared to the microprocessors, and they are also less costly as compared to the microprocessors.
9. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
Answer: a
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microcontrollers is Harvard architecture. Due to this the program memory and the data memory are separate. This is one of the advantages of the microcontroller.
10. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
Answer: a
Explanation: In Computer systems, Microprocessors are generally used. Some of the applications of a microcontroller are in washing machines, automobiles, telephones, appliances and peripherals for computer systems.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Digital Electronics and Systems – Microcontrollers”.
1. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM, ROM, EEPROM are used as an external circuit in case of the microprocessor, but these are already embedded in a microcontroller. Due to the use of external circuits microprocessors are bulkier as compared to the microcontrollers which are more compact.
2. Which among the following is a property of a microcontroller?
a) High power devices
b) Low power devices
c) High cost
d) Large size
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the important properties of a microcontroller is that it is a low power device and may consume only 50 watts of energy. In addition to this, it has low cost and less size as compared to a microprocessor.
3. Microcontrollers have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The microcontrollers have generally small size and high cost. The components chosen for the microcontrollers have generally low size and low cost. One of the important properties of a microcontroller is that it is a low power device and may consume only 50 watts of energy.
4. How many bytes can a typical low-end microcontroller have?
a) 100 bytes
b) 500 bytes
c) 1000 bytes
d) 300 bytes
Answer: c
Explanation: A low-end microcontroller chip has 20 bytes of RAM and 1000 bytes of ROM. These chips can sometimes have very low cost and very less size suitable for limited applications.
5. Which among the following is the main advantage of a microcontroller?
a) Simple programming
b) High-level programming
c) Costly
d) High voltage requirement
Answer: a
Explanation: Microcontroller uses a simple language and it is therefore very easy and flexible to design software. The voltage requirement is very low and it has a very low cost.
6. PIC is a microcontroller.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The peripheral interface controller is a microcontroller which is made by microchip technology and derived from PIC1650. Its name is currently expanded as a programmable intelligent computer.
7. Which among the following is not a hardware feature of PIC?
a) EPROM
b) EEPROM
c) SRAM
d) Watchdog timer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some of the hardware features of the PIC microcontroller is that they have Flash memory, SRAM, EEPROM, sleep mode, watchdog timer, various crystal or RC oscillator configurations, or an external clock.
8. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
Answer: d
Explanation: In compact systems, we can use Microcontrollers and hence microcontrollers are more effective as compared to the microprocessors, and they are also less costly as compared to the microprocessors.
9. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
Answer: a
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microcontrollers is Harvard architecture. Due to this the program memory and the data memory are separate. This is one of the advantages of the microcontroller.
10. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
Answer: a
Explanation: In Computer systems, Microprocessors are generally used. Some of the applications of a microcontroller are in washing machines, automobiles, telephones, appliances and peripherals for computer systems.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Data Acquisition Systems”.
1. Who invented LabVIEW?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Jeff Kodosky
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: b
Explanation: Jeff Kodosky invented LabVIEW. He invented it at National Instruments. He was the co-founder of National Instruments. LabVIEW provides an interface in which a user can manually enter one or many sample sets and can convert it into graphical form or manipulate it to give reasonable meanings. It is used for controlling Data acquisition systems.
2. What is the full form of MIDAS with respect to data acquisition package?
a) Maximum input data acquisition system
b) Minimum integrated data acquisition system
c) Maximum integrated data acquisition system
d) Minimum input data acquisition system
Answer: c
Explanation: The full form of MIDAS with respect to data acquisition package is Maximum integrated data acquisition system. It is a DAQ package developed at Paul Scherrer Institute of Switzerland and TRIUMF of Canada.
3. What is stand alone data acquisition systems often called?
a) Data Blogger
b) Data Logger
c) Data Vlogger
d) Digital Blogger
Answer: b
Explanation: Stand alone data acquisition systems often called as Data Logger. They are also called as data recorder. It is an electronic device that records quantitative data over a span of time or with respect to any other reference.
4. Which is an example of Analog to digital converter?
a) ADC0808CCN PDIP-28
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: a
Explanation: ADC0808CCN PDIP-28 is an example of Analog to digital converter. It consists of a 8 channel multiplexer. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch.
5. Data acquisition can be done on qualitative quantities.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Data acquisition cannot be done on qualitative quantities. It can be only done on quantitative quantities. Data acquisition is a process of sampling physical signals that can be represented in the form of digital numeric values.
6. DAQ cannot be controlled using C++ programming.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DAQ can be controlled using C++ programming. C++ programming is generally used for coding in DAQNavi. Other software such as JAVA, BASIC, LabVIEW can also be used for this purpose.
7. What type of interface does a DAQ hardware creates?
a) Interface between two similar signals
b) Interface between a computer and signal
c) Interface between two dissimilar signals
d) Interface between two similar hardware
Answer: b
Explanation: A DAQ hardware creates an interface between a computer and signal. These signals are collected from the outside world. They are set of physical values that can be sampled and is collected using different sensors.
8. DAQ system can be controlled using LabVIEW.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: DAQ system can be controlled using LabVIEW. LabVIEW provides an interface in which a user can manually enter one or many sample sets and can convert it into graphical form or manipulate it to give reasonable meanings.
9. Who invented Electro cardiogram?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Willem Einthoven
d) Robert Conrad
Answer: c
Explanation: Willem Einthoven invented Electro cardiogram. He was a Dutch physiologist and physician who developed Electro cardiogram in the year 1895. He received a noble prize in the year 1924 for it. Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system. The data and physical samples of heartbeats are collected by the Electro cardiogram and is converted into suitable and meaningful graph using a computer.
10. Which is an example of data logger kit?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: c
Explanation: RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit. It is a 10 axis data logger kit manufactured from NXP. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch.
11. DAQ system cannot be controlled using fortran programming language.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DAQ system can be controlled using fortran programming language. DAQ applications require programming language such as fortran to run it. Other software such as JAVA, BASIC, LabVIEW can also be used for this purpose.
12. Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system. The data and physical samples of heartbeats are collected by the Electro cardiogram and are converted into suitable and meaningful graphs using a computer.
13. “JAVA” can be used for data acquisition.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: JAVA” can be used for data acquisition. It provides an interface that can be used for data acquisition. JDDAC is a platform that can be used for DAQ .
14. Which is a false statement regarding DAQ systems?
a) It can measure physical phenomenon which can be sampled
b) Signal conditioning can be done
c) DAQ system can generate its own physical sample sets
d) Analog to digital conversion can be done
Answer: c
Explanation: DAQ systems cannot generate its own physical sample sets. It can measure physical phenomenon which can be sampled. These systems can also condition signal as well as it can convert analog signal to digital signal.
15. Which is an example of signal conditioner?
a) RCV420KPG4
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: a
Explanation: RCV420KPG4 is an example of signal conditioner. It is manufactured by “Texas Instruments”. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “I/O Hardware and Software at the Microprocessor”.
1. What is the name of Intel’s first microprocessor?
a) Intel 4003
b) Intel 4004
c) Intel 4005
d) Intel Pentium
Answer: b
Explanation: Intel’s first microprocessor was Intel 4004. It was released by Intel Corporation in the year 1971. It had 4 bit central processing unit along with cutting age silicon gate technology. It was a complete CPU inside a chip.
2. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino UNO?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega168
Answer: c
Explanation: Arduino UNO is a development board based on the ATmega328 microcontroller. It has total 14 pins which includes both input and output pins. 6 of its pin can be used as PWM pin.
3. Who invented AND gate?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Oersted
d) Walther Bothe
Answer: d
Explanation: Walther Bothe invented AND gate. He invented modern electronic AND gate in the year 1924 and received a noble prize in physics for this invention in the year 1954. He designed electromechanical logic gates for his computer Z1.
4. Which microprocessor is a second generation microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) Motorola 68000
d) Motorola 68010
Answer: a
Explanation: INTEL 8085 is a second generation microprocessor among the following microprocessors. It was an 8 bit micro processor. All others are third generation 16 bit microprocessor.
5. Microprocessors do not have inbuilt RAM .
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors do not have inbuilt RAM . They do not have even ROM . Microprocessors are just integrated circuits that have CPU inside them.
6. Microcontrollers do not have inbuilt RAM .
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Microcontrollers do have inbuilt RAM . Microcontrollers are integrated circuits that have CPU , fixed amount of RAM , ROM and some other components inside it.
7. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino Leonardo?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega32u4
Answer: d
Explanation: Arduino Leonardo is a development board based on the ATmega32u4 microcontroller. It has total 20 pins which includes both input and output pins. 7 of its pin can be used as PWM pin.
8. Which is a 64 bit microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) Mororola 68020
d) Intel Pentium
Answer: d
Explanation: Intel Pentium is a 64 bit microprocessor among the following. It is the fifth generation microprocessor. Mororola 68020 is a 32 bit microprocessor. INTEL 8086 is a 16 bit microprocessor and INTEL 8085 is an 8 bit microprocessor.
9. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino Leonardo?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega32u4
Answer: d
Explanation: Arduino Leonardo is a development board based on the ATmega32u4 microcontroller. It has total 20 pins which includes both input and output pins. 7 of its pin can be used as PWM pin.
10. Which microprocessor is a third generation microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) INTEL 80386
d) Motorola 68020
Answer: b
Explanation: INTEL 8086 is a third generation microprocessor among the following microprocessors. It was an 16 bit micro processor. INTEL 8085 is a second generation microprocessor. INTEL 80386 and Motorola 68020 are fourth generation microprocessor.
11. Second generation microprocessor was a 4 bit microprocessor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Second generation microprocessor was an 8 bit microprocessor. Third generation microprocessor was a 16 bit microprocessor. Fourth generation microprocessor was a 32 bit microprocessor and the latest is the fifth generation 64 bit microprocessor.
12. Microprocessors are built for some special tasks and can only perform those.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Microprocessors are not built for any specific task. They can only perform variety of tasks depending upon the necessity. Microcontrollers are built for some special tasks that’s why they have inbuilt small amount of memory in the form of RAM and ROM.
13. Microprocessors do not have inbuilt ROM .
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors do not have inbuilt ROM . They do not have even RAM . Microprocessors are just integrated circuits that have CPU inside them. A system designer has to attach them externally.
14. Which microprocessor is a fourth generation microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) INTEL 80386
d) Motorola 68010
Answer: c
Explanation: INTEL 80386 is a fourth generation microprocessor among the following microprocessors. It was a 32 bit micro processor. INTEL 8085 is a second generation microprocessor. INTEL 8086 and Motorola 68010 are third generation microprocessors.
15. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino MEGA?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega168
Answer: a
Explanation: Arduino MEGA is a development board based on the ATmega2560 microcontroller. It has total 54 pins which includes both input and output pins. 15 of its pin can be used as PWM pin.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Analog to Digital Converters”.
1. What is the nyquist frequency for a bandwidth of span “X”?
a) 0
b) X
c) 2X
d) 3X
Answer: c
Explanation: The nyquist frequency for a bandwidth of span “X” is 2X. The nyquist frequency of any signal that is band limited is defined as twice the bandwidth of the channel. So for a bandwidth span of “X”, the nyquist frequency will be 2X.
2. What is the LSB voltage of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 16 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits is 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Full scale voltage range=16 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=2 bits
Number of intervals=2
Number of intervals => 2 2 =4
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/ number of intervals
LSB voltage=resolution
LSB voltage=>16/4=4 volts.
3. What is the full scale voltage range of a analog to digital converter if the LSB voltage is 4 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 3?
a) 36 volt
b) 31 volt
c) 43 volt
d) 32 volt
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
LSB voltage = 4 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=3 bits
Number of intervals=2
Number of intervals => 2 3 =8
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/number of intervals
LSB voltage=resolution
Full scale voltage range=Resolution*number of intervals
Full scale voltage range=4*8
Full scale voltage range=32 V
4. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 16 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Full scale voltage range=16 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=2 bits
Number of intervals=2
Number of intervals => 2 2 =4
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/number of intervals
Resolution=>16/4=4 volts.
5. Nyquist rate is the maximum rate at which a signal of finite bandwidth needs to be sampled in order to retrieve all its information.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Nyquist rate is the not maximum rate at which a signal of finite bandwidth needs to be sampled in order to retrieve all its information. It is the minimum rate at which the signal of finite bandwidth needs to be sampled to get all its information.
6. What is the LSB voltage of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 8 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Full scale voltage range=8 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=2 bits
Number of intervals=2
Number of intervals => 2 2 =4
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/ number of intervals
LSB voltage=resolution
LSB voltage=>8/4=2 volts.
7. How many resistors are required to make an n-bit Analog-to-digital converter using string resistor ladder network?
a) 2n resistors
b) 2n resistors
c) 3n resistors
d) 3n resistors
Answer: b
Explanation: 2n resistors are required to make an n-bit Analog-to-digital converter using string resistor ladder network. The number of resistors increases exponentially, which is a major disadvantage of this network.
8. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of an Analog to digital converter?
a) BC541
b) ADS1115
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
Explanation: ADS1115 the name of an Analog to digital converter. It is a 16 bit integrated circuit and is designed by the Texas Instrument. It supports I2C communication protocol. It also has an oscillator inside it.
9. What does LVDS stand for?
a) Low-voltage differentiating signal
b) Least-voltage differential signal
c) Low-voltage differential signal
d) Low-voltage differentiable signal
Answer: c
Explanation: LVDS stand for Low-voltage differential signal. It is a technical standard which specifies the electrical characteristics of a serial, differential communication protocol. It is also known an TIA/EIA-644.
10. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 8 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Full scale voltage range=8 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=2 bits
Number of intervals=2
Number of intervals => 2 2 =4
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/ number of intervals
Resolution=>8/4=2 volts.
11. What is binary equivalent of 30?
a) 11110
b) 01111
c) 11011
d) 111110
Answer: a
Explanation: The binary equivalent of 30 is 11110. Binary number system is the smallest possible number system that contains only 0 and 1. It is machine level language. Machines are fed with binary information for performing any work.
12. What is binary equivalent of 70?
a) 1000101
b) 1000111
c) 1000110
d) 111110
Answer: c
Explanation: The binary equivalent of 70 is 1000110. Binary number system is the smallest possible number system that contains only 0 and 1. It is machine level language. Machines convert our high level language to their binary equivalent for understanding the commands.
13. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 10 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 1.5 volt
b) 2.5 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Full scale voltage range=10 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=2 bits
Number of intervals=2
Number of intervals => 2 2 =4
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/number of intervals
Resolution=>10/4=2.5 volts.
14. What is gray code equivalent of 51?
a) 1000101010
b) 0000101010
c) 00001010101
d) 0000101011
Answer: b
Explanation: The gray code equivalent of 51 is 0000101010. Gray code was developed to encrypt the digital data. It converted the binary into similar looking pattern of 0’s and 1’s which can only be decoded if the correct algorithm is followed.
Answer: d
Explanation: The gray code equivalent of 7 is 0100. Gray code was developed to encrypt the digital data. It converted the binary into similar looking pattern of 0’s and 1’s which can only be decoded if the correct algorithm is followed.
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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Digital to Analog Converters”.
1. What is the form in which audio files are stored?
a) Digital
b) Semi-digital
c) Analog
d) Semi-Analog
Answer: a
Explanation: The audio files are stored in digital format. Computer or any other storage device can only understand and store the binary digits 0 and 1, the audio or the sound waves are converted into digital data which is a combination of many 0 and 1. Thus digital data can be stored in any storage device.
2. Which conversion takes place when music is played from a memory card?
a) AAC
b) ADC
c) DDC
d) DAC
Answer: d
Explanation: DAC conversion takes place when music is played from a memory card. Computer or any memory storing device only understand the binary language which is a combination of many 0 and 1. Any information that has to be stored should be converted into binary digits. The output of any music player is analog signal. Therefore digital to analog conversion takes place music is played from a memory card.
3. What is the output of a music player?
a) Digital
b) Semi-digital
c) Analog
d) Semi-Analog
Answer: c
Explanation: Output of a music player is analog signal. Music or any type of sound is an example of analog signal. The sound signal of music contains many crests and troughs which makes it analog signal.
4. What does PWM stand for?
a) Pulse Width modulation
b) Pulsating Width modulation
c) Pulse Width modulator
d) Pulsating Width modulator
Answer: a
Explanation: PWM stands for pulse width modulation. It is a process by which the digital signals are converted to analog signal. In this process the duty cycle of the signal is varied. This varied signal acts as analog signal.
5. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.4 seconds and the time period is 0.8 second?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Pulse width=0.4 seconds
Time period=0.8 second
Duty cycle=*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.4/0.8=0.5*100%=50%.
6. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.008 seconds and frequency is 50 hertz?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Pulse width=0.008 seconds
Frequency=50 hertz
Time period=1/frequency
Time period=1/50= 0.02
Duty cycle=*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.008/0.02=0.4*100%=40%.
7. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the ON time of the signal is 0.5 seconds and off time of the signal is 0.5 seconds?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
ON time=0.5 seconds
Off time=0.5 seconds
Duty cycle=*100%.
Total time period=ON time + Off time=>1
Duty cycle => 0.5/1=0.5*100%=50%.
8. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of a Digital to Analog converter?
a) BC541
b) MCP4725
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
Explanation: MCP4725the name of a Digital to Analog converter. It has 12 bit resolution. It supports I2C communication protocol. It also has an internal EEPROM to store the settings. It works on 2.2V to 5.7V input.
9. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.004 seconds and frequency is 50 hertz?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
pulse width=0.004 seconds
Frequency=50 hertz
Time period=1/frequency
Time period=1/50=0.02
Duty cycle=*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.004/0.02=0.2*100%=20%.
10. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.3 seconds and the time period is 0.6 second?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Pulse width=0.3 seconds
Time period=0.6 second
Duty cycle=*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.3/0.6=0.5*100%=50%.
11. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the ON time of the signal is 0.7 seconds and off time of the signal is 0.3 seconds?
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
ON time=0.7 seconds
Off time=0.3 seconds
Duty cycle=*100%.
Total time period=ON time + Off time=>1
Duty cycle => 0.7/1=0.7*100%=70%.
12. Which is an example of Digital to Analog converter module?
a) PCF8591
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) DM388AAARD21
Answer: a
Explanation: PCF8591 is an example of Digital to Analog converter module. DM388AAARD21 is an example of Digital media processor. It is manufactured by the “Texas Instruments”. TMS320F2809PZA is an example of Digital signal controller. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit.
13. The highest voltage value of an analog signal is replaced by “logic 1” in digital signal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The highest voltage value of an analog signal is replaced by “logic 1” in digital signal. Digital signal can only represent 2 values that are logic 1 and logic 0. Logic 1 represents high voltage whereas logic 0 represents low voltage.
14. We cannot store analog data directly.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Analog data cannot be stored directly. Analog data such as voice recording, music, video etc. everything is converted into digital data for storage. Any storage device can only store set of binary digits .
15. Light can be considered as a form of digital signal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Light cannot be considered as a form of digital signal. It is a form of electromagnetic radiation that can carry both analog and digital signal. Digital and analog are means of coding information on signals.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Data Flow in DSP”.
1. Who developed Boolean dataflow?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joe Buck
c) Oersted
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: b
Explanation: Joe Buck developed Boolean dataflow. It supports the data flow control during runtime like the DDF . Joe Buck developed this Boolean dataflow as a part of his PHD thesis.
2. Fast Fourier transform algorithm can compute the value of which type of transform?
a) DFT and IDFT
b) DFT
c) IDFT
d) Z transform
Answer: a
Explanation: Fast Fourier transform algorithm can compute the value of both DFT and IDFT . A Fourier transform converts the signal from time or space domain to frequency domain and vice versa by IDFT.
3. Which digital filter should be used to separate two frequency bands?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Chebyshev filter
d) Weiner filter
Answer: c
Explanation: Chebyshev filter should be used to separate two frequency bands. The design of the Chebyshev filter was based upon a mathematical technique known as Z-transform. They are also well known for their fast speed.
4. Which is an example of Digital media processor?
a) ADC0808CCN PDIP-28
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) DM388AAARD21
Answer: d
Explanation: DM388AAARD21 is an example of Digital media processor. It is manufactured by the “Texas Instruments”. TMS320F2809PZA is an example of Digital signal controller. ADC0808CCN PDIP-28 is an example of Analog to digital converter. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit.
5. Von Neumann architecture is currently used in most of the fields for dataflow.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Von Neumann architecture is currently not used in most of the fields for dataflow. It is a traditional dataflow architecture also known as control flow architecture. Today Dataflow architecture is used in most of the fields which totally contrasts the Von Neumann architecture.
6. Program counter is not present in Dataflow Architecture.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Program counter is not present in Dataflow Architecture. Program counters are registers that contains address of the instructions that are currently being executed. The execution of the dataflow architecture depends totally on the input.
7. Which is an example of Digital signal controller?
a) ADC0808CCN PDIP-28
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: b
Explanation: TMS320F2809PZA is an example of Digital signal controller. It is manufactured by the “Texas Instruments”. ADC0808CCN PDIP-28 is an example of Analog to digital converter. It consists of a 8 channel multiplexer. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay.
8. What does firing of instruction mean in terms of dataflow?
a) The Content-addressable memory is loaded with instruction and ready for execution
b) The Content-addressable memory is loaded with instruction but not ready for execution
c) The Content-addressable memory executed the instruction
d) The Content-addressable memory cannot execute the instruction
Answer: a
Explanation: Firing of instruction mean in terms of dataflow means that the Content-addressable memory is loaded with instruction and ready for execution. The CAM is also known as associative memory.
9. Which memory is also known as associative memory?
a) Read only memory
b) Random access memory
c) Content-addressable memory
d) Flash memory
Answer: c
Explanation: Content-addressable memory is also known as associative memory. In this type of memory the memory unit or the memory packet is identified by accessing the data itself rather than the memory address.
10. What does CAM stand for in terms of memory storage and data flow?
a) Context-addressable memory
b) Content-addressable memory
c) Context-addressed memory
d) Content-allocating memory
Answer: b
Explanation: CAM stands for Content-addressable memory in terms of memory storage and data flow. It is a type of computer memory which facilitates us with very high speed searching of applications.
11. A compiler does not compile a program further if an error is found.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A compiler compiles the whole program further even if an error is found. It compiles the whole program in one go. After compiling the whole program the compiler generates the total number of errors in it.
12. An interpreter does not compile a program further if an error is found.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: An interpreter does not compile a program further if an error is found. It compiles the whole program line by line. Therefore when an error occurs, the interpreter stops compiling from that point onwards.
13. Dynamic data flow allows one token per arc in the data flow graph.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic data flow allows more than one token per arc in the dataflow graph. Static dataflow allows one token per arc in the dataflow graph. In static dataflow model we can only approximate the abstract model.
14. What is the type of machines called that uses Content-addressable memory ?
a) Dynamic Dataflow Machines
b) Static Dataflow Machines
c) Static inflow Machines
d) Dynamic outflow Machines
Answer: a
Explanation: The type of machines that uses Content-addressable memory are called as Dynamic Dataflow Machines. A Dynamic Dataflow Machine supports parallelism by loop unravelling among the iterating loops.
15. What does SDF stand for in terms of signal processing and data flow?
a) Synchronous data flux
b) Synchronous data flow
c) Synthesized data flow
d) Synthesized data flux
Answer: b
Explanation: SDF stands for Synchronous data flow in terms of signal processing and data flow. It is a special type of data flow in which each receiving nodes are restricted to consume a fixed amount of data tokens per invocation.
This set of Advanced Mechatronics Questions and Answers focuses on “Components Interconnection and Impedance Matching”.
1. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors, one of 20 microfarads and another of 10 microfarads are connected in series?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 15 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors, one of 20 microfarads and another of 10 microfarads are connected in series is 15 microfarads. When capacitors are placed is series to each other then the equivalent capacitance is given by 1/Ct= ++…., where Ct is the total capacitance. C1,C2….Cn are total no. of capacitors in series.
Therefore =+
Ct=15 microfarads.
2. What is the effect on phase shift due to a capacitor in AC circuits?
a) Voltage leads the current by 180 degree
b) Voltage leads the current by 90 degree
c) Current leads the voltage by 90 degree
d) Current leads the voltage by 180 degree
Answer: c
Explanation: The phase shift due to a capacitor in AC circuits is 90 degrees. In this the Current leads the voltage by 90 degree. While in case of an inductor the phase difference remain same but the current lags the voltage by 90 degree.
3. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 1000 ohm and capacitor of 15 microfarads in series when a current of 0.02 ampere flows across the circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 5 Volts?
a) 25 Volts
b) 24 Volts
c) 26 Volts
d) 28 Volts
Answer: a
Explanation: Given : Voltage drop across capacitor = 5 Volts
Current in loop = 0.02 ampere
Resistance = 1000 ohm
Capacitance=15 microfarads
Drop across resistor=1000 *0.02
Drop across resistor=20 Volts
Source voltage = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 10 Volts + 5 Volts
Source voltage=25 Volts.
4. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are connected in parallel?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 40 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are connected in parallel is 40 microfarads. When capacitors are placed parallel to each other, then their value of capacitances simply gets added up.
5. What is the reactance due to a capacitor of 0.05 farads when an alternating current of frequency 50 Hertz passes through it?
a) 0.063 ohm
b) 0.63 ohm
c) 0.0063 ohm
d) 0.0703 ohm
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current = 50 Hertz
Capacitance = 0.05 farads
Reactance=1/2πfC
Reactance=1/
Reactance=0.063 ohm.
6. What is the reactance due to an inductor of 0.05 henry when an alternating current of frequency 50 Hertz passes through it?
a) 16.7 ohm
b) 15.7 ohm
c) 17.7 ohm
d) 14.7 ohm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current = 50 Hertz
Inductance = 0.05 henry
Reactance=2πfL
Reactance=2*3.14*50*0.05
Reactance=15.7 ohm.
7. What is the equivalent Inductance when two Inductors one of 20 henry and another of 15 henry are connected in series?
a) 20 henry
b) 35 henry
c) 40 henry
d) 10 henry
Answer: b
Explanation: The equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another of 15 henry are connected in series is 35 henry. When Inductors are placed in series to each other, then their value of Inductance simply gets added up.
8. What is the equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another of 10 henry are connected in parallel?
a) 20 henry
b) 30 henry
c) 15 henry
d) 10 henry
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another of 10 henry are connected in parallel is 15 henry. When Inductors are placed is parallel to each other then the equivalent Inductance is given by 1/Lt=++…., where Lt is the total Inductance. L1,L2….Ln are total no. of inductors in series.
Therefore =+
Lt=15 henry.
9. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are connected in series?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 40 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
Answer: d
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are connected in series is 10 microfarads. When capacitors are placed is series to each other then the equivalent capacitance is given by 1/Ct=++…., where Ct is the total capacitance. C1,C2….Cn are total no. of capacitors in series.
Therefore =+
Ct=10 microfarads.
10. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 100 ohm and capacitor of 15 microfarads in series when a current of 0.05 ampere flows across the circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 2 Volts?
a) 7 Volts
b) 4 Volts
c) 6 Volts
d) 8 Volts
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Voltage drop across capacitor = 2 Volts
Current in loop = 0.05 ampere
Resistance = 100 ohm
Capacitance=15 microfarads
Drop across resistor=100*0.05
Drop across resistor=5 Volts
Source voltage = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 5 Volts + 2 Volts
Source voltage=7 Volts.
11. What is the reactance due to an inductor of 0.01 henry when an alternating current of frequency 40 Hertz passes through it?
a) 3.512 ohm
b) 15.7 ohm
c) 2.512 ohm
d) 14.7 ohm
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current = 40 Hertz
Inductance = 0.01 henry
Reactance=2πfL
Reactance=2*3.14*40*0.01
Reactance=2.512 ohm.
12. What is the reactance due to a capacitor of 0.01 farads when an alternating current of frequency 40 Hertz passes through it?
a) 0.063 ohm
b) 0.398 ohm
c) 0.0063 ohm
d) 0.0703 ohm
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current = 40 Hertz
Capacitance = 0.01 farads
Reactance=1/2πfC
Reactance=1/
Reactance=0.398 ohm.
13. The impedance matching is done to match the internal impedance of two different sources.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The impedance matching is not done to match the internal impedance of two different sources. Rather this technique is used to match the internal source resistance and the driven load resistance. It maximizes the power transfer.
14. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 500 ohm and capacitor of 10 microfarads in series when a current of 0.02 ampere flows across the circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 2 Volts.
a) 12 Volts
b) 4 Volts
c) 6 Volts
d) 8 Volts
Answer: a
Explanation: Given : Voltage drop across capacitor = 2 Volts
Current in loop = 0.02 ampere
Resistance = 500 ohm
Capacitance=10 microfarads
Drop across resistor=500*0.02
Drop across resistor=10 Volts
Source voltage = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 10 Volts + 2 Volts
Source voltage=12 Volts.
15. What is the effect on phase shift due to an inductor in AC circuits?
a) Voltage leads the current by 180 degree
b) Voltage leads the current by 90 degree
c) Current leads the voltage by 90 degree
d) Current leads the voltage by 180 degree
Answer: b
Explanation: The phase shift due to an inductor in AC circuits is 90 degrees. In this the voltage leadsthe current by 90 degree. While in case of a capacitor the phase difference remains same but the current leads the voltage by 90 degree.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Interfacing Motor Drives”.
1. Which is not a property of group drive?
a) Less initial cost than individual drive
b) Less maintenance cost than individual drive
c) Low power factor
d) Provides constant motor speed
Answer: d
Explanation: Group drive does not provide constant motor speed. It has less initial cost compared to individual drive setup. It also has low maintenance cost, but it has a great disadvantage that the speed of the motor is not constant.
2. Which is not a part of electric drive?
a) Power Modulator
b) Control unit
c) Converters
d) Spark plug
Answer: d
Explanation: Spark plug is not a part of electric drive. The control unit converts the input reference frequency to a desired variable frequency. AC to DC converter is present to provide a constant DC supply. Power modulator controls the output power generated by the motor.
3. Which driver is also known as servomotor amplifiers?
a) Servo drives
b) DC Drives
c) Stepper drives
d) AC drives
Answer: a
Explanation: Servo drive is also known as servomotor amplifiers. It is generally used to control the servo motors, but it can be used for variety of applications such as micro positioning, robotics, generating controlled signal etc.
4. Which driver is also known as Motor indexer?
a) Servo drives
b) DC Drives
c) Stepper drives
d) AC drives
Answer: c
Explanation: Stepper drive is also known as Motor indexer. It is generally used to control the stepper motors, but it can be used for variety of applications such as stepped signal generation, robotics, machine tools etc.
5. Which is the drive in which each machine has separate motors to drive?
a) Multi-motor drive
b) Individual drive
c) Group drive
d) Stepper drive
Answer: b
Explanation: Individual drive is the drive in which each machine has separate motors to drive. In these types of drive, each setup has their separate motors and gear pulley mechanism which together works to fulfil specific task.
6. Induction motor works on the principle of faradays law of electromagnetic induction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Induction motor works on the principle of faradays law of electromagnetic induction. An electromotive force is generated due to the relative speed between the stator and the motor. This is due to the faradays law of electromagnetic induction. This further induces a rotor current which drives the motor.
7. Group drive has low power factor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Group drive has low power factor. It is one of the major issues why group drives are not extensively used. But it has comparatively low initial cost of setup than that of an individual drives.
8. Which drive is also called as Line shaft drive?
a) Multi-motor drive
b) Individual drive
c) Group drive
d) Stepper drive
Answer: c
Explanation: Group drive is also called as Line shaft drive. In this type of drive, a single motor drives a line shaft. This line shaft may further drive a cluster of working machine may be operated.
9. In ward leonard system of speed control we cannot achieve uniform acceleration of motors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In ward leonard system of speed control we can achieve uniform acceleration of motors. It is a very smooth speed control method, where the acceleration of the motor is uniform and it also can be bidirectional.
10. Which is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
Answer: d
Explanation: L298N is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. MPU 6050 is a gyroscope module. MSP430G2ET is a launchpad designed by Texas Instruments.
11. Which is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC ?
a) DRV8313
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
Answer: a
Explanation: DRV8313 is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC . L298N is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. MPU 6050 is a gyroscope module.
12. Which is a type of single full H-Bridge motor driver IC ?
a) DRV8313
b) CMCP793V-500
c) DRV8873
d) L298N
Answer: c
Explanation: DRV8873 is a type of single full H-Bridge motor driver IC . DRV8313 is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC . L298N is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor.
13. Who invented first practical DC motor?
a) William Sturgeon
b) Joseph Henry
c) Norman Bel Geddes
d) Walther Bothe
Answer: a
Explanation: William Sturgeon invented first practical DC motor. It was made in the year 1886. This was the first practical DC motor that can be used to move objects of variable weights and could run on constant speed.
14. When was the first AC induction motor invented?
a) 1887
b) 1886
c) 1832
d) 1835
Answer: a
Explanation: The first AC induction motor was invented in the year 1887. It was invented by the famous Nikola Tesla in his workshop situated at New York. It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
15. Which is a type of three phase brushless DC motor driver?
a) DRV8313
b) DRV10970
c) DRV8873
d) L298N
Answer: b
Explanation: DRV10970 is a type of three phase brushless DC motor driver. DRV8873 is a type of single full H-Bridge motor driver IC . DRV8313 is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC . L298N is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Electrical Power Supply and Protection”.
1. What is the medium in which arc is kept in SF6 circuit breaker?
a) Oil
b) Air
c) Sand
d) Sulphur hexafluoride
Answer: d
Explanation: Arc of SF6 circuit breaker is kept in Sulphur hexafluoride medium. The in Sulphur hexafluoride present in it acts as very good arch quenching media and also acts as insulating medium for breaking the circuits in SF6 type circuit breakers.
2. SF6 circuit breakers are better than BOCB .
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: SF6 circuit breakers are better than BOCB . It is so because SF6 circuit breaker uses Sulphur hexafluoride inside the setup which has very good arch quenching property along with highly favourable physical and chemical properties.
3. Which is not a property of Sulphur hexafluoride?
a) Colourless
b) Odourless
c) Toxic
d) Non-Inflammable
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphur hexafluoride is a Non-toxic gas. It has no colour and it also has no distinguishing smell. It is inflammable along with excellent arc quenching properties. It is used in SF6 type circuit breakers.
4. What is the dielectric strength of Sulphur hexafluoride used in SF6 type circuit breaker?
a) 2.5 times of air
b) 2.5 times of water
c) 2.5 times of oil
d) 2.5 times of glass
Answer: a
Explanation: The dielectric strength of Sulphur hexafluoride used in SF6 type circuit breaker is 2.5 times that of air. Sulphur hexafluoride has excellent physical, chemical and arc quenching properties. Also it acts as very good insulator that is why it is used in the SF6 type circuit breakers.
5. Potential difference and EMF are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential difference and EMF are not same. They are different in many aspects such as EMF is independent of resistance but the potential difference depends on resistance.
6. What does “MCB” stand for?
a) Miniature circuit breaker
b) Mini circuit breaker
c) Miniature capacitor breaker
d) Mini Capacitance breaker
Answer: a
Explanation: “MCB” stands for Miniature circuit breaker. It works on magnetic effect of electric current. When there is overflow of electric current, it creates a magnetic field that repels the magnet present in the switch. This repulsion breaks the circuit and restricts the flow of current.
7. What is the principal on which MCB works ?
a) Magnetic effect of electric current
b) Lenz law
c) Faradays law of electric current
d) Flemings Right hand rule
Answer: a
Explanation: MCB works on magnetic effect of electric current. When there is overflow of electric current, it creates a magnetic field that repels the magnet present in the switch. This repulsion breaks the circuit and restricts the flow of current.
8. What is the medium in which arc is kept in BOCB ?
a) Oil
b) Air
c) Sand
d) Water
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of BOCB is kept in oil medium. The oil present in it acts as a arch quenching media and also acts as a insulating medium for breaking the circuits in bulk oil type circuit breakers.
9. Which material is commonly used for making the arch of circuit breakers?
a) Copper
b) Tungsten
c) Aluminium
d) Copper tungsten alloy
Answer: d
Explanation: Copper tungsten alloy is commonly used for making the arch of circuit breakers. Tungsten has an advantage that it has a very high level temperature resistance, whereas copper provides an excellent conducting property.
10. What does “BOCB” stand for in context to circuit protections?
a) Bulk on-spot circuit breakers
b) Bonded oil circuit breaker
c) Bulk oiled circuit breaker
d) Bulk oil circuit breaker
Answer:d
Explanation: “BOCB” stands for Bulk oil circuit breaker in context to circuit protections. In these types of circuit breaker, oil acts as an insulating medium that interrupts the flow of current during the time of short circuits.
11. What is the standard colour of ac supply ground wire in India?
a) Red
b) Magenta
c) Pink
d) Green
Answer: d
Explanation: The standard colour of ac supply ground wire in India is green. Separate standard colours are assigned for wires carrying AC supply which comes in our homes in order to easily understand the significance of each wires.
12. What is the standard colour of ac supply live wire in India?
a) Red
b) Magenta
c) Pink
d) Green
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard colour of ac supply live wire in India is Red. Separate standard colours are assigned for wires carrying AC supply which comes in our homes in order to easily understand the significance of each wires.
13. What is the standard colour of ac supply neutral wire in India?
a) Red
b) Black
c) Pink
d) Green
Answer: b
Explanation: The standard colour of ac supply neutral wire in India is Black. Separate standard colours are assigned for wires carrying AC supply which comes in our homes in order to easily understand the significance of each wires.
14. Green and yellow striped wire is also used to indicate ac supply live wire.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Green and yellow striped wire is also not used to indicate 220 volt ac supply live wire. It is used to denote ground wire of an ac supply. It is also called as earthing wire.
15. Live wire and hot wire are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Live wire and hot wire are same. Live wires are sometimes also referred as hot wires which carry’s the supply voltage. In India red colour is assigned for the indication of AC live wire.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “CNC Machines Basics”.
1. What is the full form of CNC?
a) Computer numerical control
b) Computer numbercontrol
c) Computer network control
d) Computer numberscount
Answer: a
Explanation: Computer numerical control is the full form of CNC. If we provide software-based numerical control then it is called as computer numerical control. The other three options are not the perfect choice for the full form of CNC.
2. What does CNC machine use to control motion and speed?
a) Numerical
b) Programs, as well as computer keyboard, Graphical user interface
c) Feedback system
d) GUI
Answer: b
Explanation: CNC machine uses the program to control motion and speed. The feedback system is used to record data from the sensor and compare it with input data. The graphical user interface provides a facility to understand the position of the tool according to the input program.
3. The function of the feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with output data.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. If there is an error found in the system, then it is controlled by sending new signals towards the driver.
4. What is the function of the GUI ?
a) To control motion and speed
b) Converts program into the action of the driver
c) To record the data from the sensor
d) To understand the position of the tool according to the input program
Answer: d
Explanation: To understand the position of the tool according to the input program is the function of GUI. CNC programs are used to control motion and speed. Machine control unit converts the program into the action of the driver. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data.
5. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is ____
a) feedback system
b) input device
c) program
d) driving system
Answer: b
Explanation: The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input device. Magnetic tape, as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input device. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. CNC machine uses the program to control motion and speed.
6. Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. It reads the code provided and decodes the instruction.
7. What is the function of the driving system in CNC?
a) Auxiliary control functions such as coolant
b) Speed and position control
c) Consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
d) To understand the position of the tool according to the input program
Answer: c
Explanation: Driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw. These are used to actuate the driving motors. Speed and position control is provided by machine tools. To understand the position of the tool according to the input program is the function of GUI.
8. Sensors used in measurement systems are ____
a) speed and position sensor
b) consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
c) numerical control sensors
d) measurement sensors
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors used in measurement systems are speed and position sensors. The driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw. Numerical control sensors and Measurement sensors are not used in CNC devices.
9. Speed and Position in CNC can be controlled using _____
a) slide table and spindle
b) machine code unit
c) feedback system
d) graphic user interface
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed and position are controlled by using a sliding table and a spindle. X and Y directions are controlled by the machine table. The z-direction is controlled by spindle speed control. In the other options, The Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. To understand the position of the tool according to the input program, is the function of Graphic user interface.
10. In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop are a part of ____
a) speed and position sensor
b) feedback system
c) machine control unit
d) input device
Answer: c
Explanation: In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop are a part of the Machine control unit. Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. Speed and position are controlled by using a sliding table and a spindle. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input device. Magnetic tape, as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input device.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Robotics”.
1. Which is the first robot to get citizenship in any country?
a) Eskimo
b) Ansino
c) Asimo
d) Sophia
Answer: d
Explanation: Sophia is the first robot to get citizenship in Saudi Arabia. The humanoid robot “Sophia” has been developed by “Hanson Robotics” at Hong Kong. Sophia is social humanoid robot that can mimic more than 60 human expressions.
2. Who created “Sophia”, the humanoid robot?
a) Jeff Bezos
b) Mark Zuckerberg
c) David Hanson
d) Elon Musk
Answer: c
Explanation: “Sophia”, the humanoid robot was created by David Hanson. It was created in the year 2016 and was first activated of February 14. Sophia is a robot that can mimic human expressions and can talk based upon her intelligence.
3. Which sensor can be used in robots for measuring distance?
a) mpu6050
b) Piezoelectric sensor
c) LDR module
d) Ultrasonic Sensor
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultrasonic Sensor can be used in robots for measuring distance. This sensors use ultrasonic sound for measurement of distance. It constitutes of ultrasonic wave producer and a receiver. When the wave encounters an object, it bounces back to the receiver which further calculates the distance depending on the time it takes to cover that distance.
4. What does “AI” stand for?
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) Artificial Intellect
c) Automatic intellect
d) Automatic intelligence
Answer: a
Explanation: AI stands for artificial intelligence. It refers to the capability of a robot to think and take its own decisions based upon its past experiences and algorithms. Providing intelligence to a non living thing is termed as Artificial Intelligence.
5. Chatbots and humanoid robots are different in many aspects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Humanoid robots and the chatbots are different in many aspects. The chatbots only respond verbally or textually but the humanoid robots have to show interaction through expressions, movements, verbally and other humanly behaviours.
6. What does “PUMA” stand for in context to robotics?
a) Programmable used machine to assemble
b) Programmed utility machine for assembly
c) Programmable universal machine for assembly
d) Programmed utility machine to assemble
Answer: c
Explanation: “PUMA” in context to robotics stands for Programmable universal machine for assembly. It is a robotic arm used for industrial assembling purpose. It was developed by Victor Scheinman at Unimation.
7. What does ZMP in terms of robotics stand for?
a) Zero Moment Point
b) Zero Mean Point
c) Zenith Moment Point
d) Zenith Measurement Point
Answer: a
Explanation: ZMP stands for Zero Moment Point. It’s basically a concept that is associated to the movement of the legs of a robot. It’s a crucial concept for the biped robots as they have only two contact points . Others do not relate to any robotic contexts.
8. Which is the first country to give citizenship to any humanoid robot?
a) Saudi Arabia
b) USA
c) India
d) Africa
Answer: a
Explanation: Saudi Arabia the first country to give citizenship to any humanoid robot. “Sophia” is the first humanoid robot to get citizenship in Saudi Arabia. Sophia is social humanoid robot that can mimic more than 60 human expressions.
9. Which organisation is developing “Asimo”?
a) Google
b) Honda
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
Answer: b
Explanation: Asimo is being developed by Honda. The project was started back in 2000 and became one of the most popular Humanoid robot of the decade. He has the ability to interact, run, play football and can mimic many different human actions. Scientists are still working on it to increase its capabilities.
10. What is the root word of “robot”, which is derived from Slavic language?
a) Robot
b) Robota
c) Roboto
d) Robust
Answer: b
Explanation: “Robota” is the root word of “robot”, which is derived from Slavic language. The word “robota” means slave. It was first introduced by a Czech writer Karel Capek in his play “Rossum’s Universal Robots”.
11. How many legs do the “Athlete” space robot has?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: “Athlete” is a six legged space robot. “Athlete” has been developed by NASA which is able to walk on its legs and is can also roll on the wheels which are present on the end of each leg.
12. How many legs do the “RASSOR” space robot has?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: a
Explanation: “RASSOR” is a two legged space robot. “RASSOR” is a humanoid robot, developed by NASA which is able to walk on its legs like an ordinary human being.
13. Which among the following robot is made by NASA for space exploration purpose?
a) Eskimo
b) Zenbo
c) Athlete
d) Pepper
Answer: c
Explanation: Athlete is is made by NASA for space for space exploration purpose. “Athlete” is a six legged space robot which is able to walk on its legs and is can also roll on the wheels which are present on the end of each leg.
14. Which among the following is an Indian robot, made by ISRO for space exploration purpose?
a) Valkyrie
b) Sita
c) Athlete
d) Vyommitra
Answer: d
Explanation: Vyommitra is an Indian robot, made by ISRO for space exploration purpose. This robot is aimed to be sent to the outer space in the year 2020 in an unmanned space mission.
15. Which among the following is a home robot?
a) Vyommitra
b) Zenbo
c) Athlete
d) Valkyrie
Answer: b
Explanation: Zenbo is a home robot. It is developed by a Taiwan company, Asus. It has the ability to interact with humans and can provide adequate assistance. It is a non humanoid robot that can work as a personal assistant for home and can follow human orders.
This set of Basic Mechatronics Questions and Answers focuses on “Mechatronics Approach to Design”.
1. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design process?
a) Hardware design and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modelling
d) Modelling and simulation
Answer: d
Explanation: Modeling and simulation involve the representation of physical systems by suitable models for describing the behaviour characteristics such as block diagram. Hardware design and simulation is a part of prototyping. Conceptual design and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
2. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
a) fluid valves
b) automatic machine tools
c) industrial robots
d) microprocessors
Answer: a
Explanation: First level of the mechatronics system is the basic control system which integrates electrical signal with mechanical action. An example of this level is the fluid valve. Automatic machine tools and industrial robots come under the second level and microprocessor in the third level respectively.
3. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Interface design is a part of software integration which involves the Operating system. Hardware integration involves process design and electronic design respectively.
4. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
c) Advanced control strategy level
d) Providing artificial intelligence
Answer: a
Explanation: Role of the second level is to integrate microelectronics into electrically controlled devices. Integration of electrical signal with mechanical action, advanced control strategy and artificial intelligence comes under the first, third and fourth level of mechatronics design respectively.
5. Microprocessor-based electrical motors are used for ____
a) prediction of fault in the system
b) correction before the fault occurs
c) actuation purpose in robots
d) providing intelligence
Answer: c
Explanation: Microprocessor-based electrical motors are used for actuation purpose in robots. Correction before the fault occurs, Actuation purpose in robots, providing intelligence is done using Artificial intelligence.
6. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Deployment is associated with the final product, embedded software deployment and lifecycle.
7. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
b) Modelling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment
Answer: a
Explanation: Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Conceptual design and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
8. What is the function of “analysis” in the modelling and simulation phase?
a) Database for maintaining project information
b) Sub models for eventual reuse
c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
Answer: c
Explanation: Analysis provides numerical methods for frequency domain, time domain and complex domain design. Database for maintaining project information, Sub models for eventual reuse are part of project management. High-level source codes are produced by the code generator.
9. Describing the behaviour characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
a) modelling and simulation
b) prototyping
c) deployment
d) design optimization
Answer: a
Explanation: In Modeling and simulation, physical systems are represented by a suitable model for describing the behaviour characteristics such as a block diagram. Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Deployment is associated with the final product, embedded software deployment and lifecycle.
10. Prototyping involves ____
a) conceptual design
b) replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
c) database for maintaining project information
d) sub models for eventual reuse
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping involves replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware. Conceptual design and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation. Database for maintaining project information, Sub models for eventual reuse are part of project management.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Design – Boat Autopilot”.
1. Which system is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-on’ control by a human operator?
a) Autopilot
b) GPS system
c) Compass
d) Actuators and steering system
Answer: a
Explanation: Autopilot is a system that is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-on’ control by a human operator. The other options are not the accurate choices as the GPS systems, compass and actuators are themselves a part of an Autopilot system which operates together to control the boat.
2. Which parameters are considered by a boat autopilot during critical weather conditions?
a) Directions
b) Weight, speed and wind conditions
c) Position
d) Steering control
Answer: b
Explanation: Autopilots have a large number of parameters which are taken in accounts such as weight and speed of the boat and sea conditions. Apparent wind and true wind react differently depending on the speed of the boat. Directions and Position are controlled by the GPS system and Compass respectively. Steering control is achieved through a remote control system.
3. System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot system. It takes information from various devices of boat and process it. The devices through which the information is taken can be central processor, compass, control head, rudder or GPS system.
4. What is the function of GPS in boat autopilot?
a) To control direction
b) To control steering
c) To understand the position of the boat
d) To understand all the parameters of the boat and according to that take decisions
Answer: a
Explanation: GPS in boat autopilot is used to control the direction of the boat. The direction of the boat depends upon the direction of the travel. The system processor is connected to the GPS system.
5. To understand the position of the boat autopilot system uses ____
a) GPS
b) Actuators and steering system
c) Compass
d) System processor
Answer: c
Explanation: Compass is provided to understand the position of the boat. GPS in boat autopilot is used to control the direction of the boat. System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot system. Actuators and steering systems are used to convert digital signals into mechanical energy.
6. The steering is controlled using the control head of a boat autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Control head is used to provide the graphical user interface. The control steering of a boat autopilot system is controlled remotely by using the remote control system. Control head helps to understand all the parameters of the boat and take the decisions.
7. Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor according to ____
a) direction of boat
b) position of boat
c) the angle of the boat is decided
d) signals of other boats
Answer: c
Explanation: Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor according to the angle of the boat decided. The angle of the boat is controlled through the steering of the boat. The position and direction are not the appropriate options as these together are taken as the signals. Signals from the other boats are used for correcting the position of the boat.
8. What is the use of actuators and steering control in boat autopilot system?
a) To control the direction of the boat
b) To control the position of the boat
c) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
d) Provides graphical user interface
Answer: c
Explanation: Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts digital signals into mechanical energy and implement. Control head is used to provide the graphical user interface. Directions and Position are controlled by the GPS system and Compass respectively.
9. What is the use of a rudder system?
a) To indicate the actual position of our boat and another boat
b) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
c) The angle of the boat is decided
d) To control steering
Answer: a
Explanation: Rudder indicates the actual position of our boat and other boats. We can use these signals to correct the position of the boat. Steering control is achieved through a remote control system. The angle of the boat is controlled through the steering of the boat. Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts digital signals into mechanical energy and implement.
10. Feedback system in autopilot is used ____
a) to understand the position of the actuator
b) to understand the position of the boat
c) to indicate the actual position of our boat and other boats
d) to convert the digital signal into mechanical energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback system is used to understand the position of the actuator. If it calculates the error, then the signals are sent again through the central processor. Compass is provided to understand the position of the boat. Rudder indicates the actual position of our boat and other boats. Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts digital signals into mechanical energy and implement.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Design – High Speed Tilting Trains”.
1. Which type of force does the tilting train produce?
a) Centrifugal force
b) Gravitational force
c) Viscous force
d) Frictional force
Answer: a
Explanation: When a train goes into a curve, it produces substantial centrifugal force towards the outside of the curve. By tilting the train, centrifugal force is balanced by a force into the inner curve and passenger discomfort is reduced. Among the other forces mentioned, Gravitational force of the train is balanced to the normal force, Frictional and Viscous forces are not experienced by the tilting train.
2. What are the properties of naturally tilted trains?
a) Using controlling technologies such as sensors
b) Use of electric actuators
c) Use of hydraulic actuators
d) Working based on the law of tilt centre located above the centre of gravity
Answer: b
Explanation: The naturally tilted trains work on a principle that law of tilt centre located above the centre of gravity of the car body. The lower parts of the car body swing outwards under the influence of lateral acceleration in the curve. Using controlling technologies such as sensors, Use of electric actuators, Use of hydraulic actuators are the properties of actively tilled trains.
3. Modern tilting trains allows operators to achieve higher speed on existing curve routes, without costly track improvements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Modern tilting trains allows operators to achieve higher speed on existing curve routes, without costly track improvements or the need to consider completely new high-speed lines.
4. Which systems are used for tilting actions of trains?
a) Servo-hydraulic actuators system
b) Accelerometer
c) Controllers
d) Actuators
Answer: a
Explanation: Servo-hydraulic actuators system is used for the tilting mechanism of trains. The accelerometer is used as tilting booster. Controllers and actuators are the parts of the control system of the tilting trains.
5. What is the use of the accelerometer in Control system of tilting trains?
a) Used for tilting actions of trains
b) To measure lateral acceleration and provide negative feedback
c) Balancing the centrifugal force of the train
d) To make active tilting possible
Answer: b
Explanation: Accelerometer in Control system of tilting trains is used to measure lateral acceleration and provide negative feedback. Servo-hydraulic actuators system is used for the tilting mechanism of trains. By tilting the train, the centrifugal force is balanced. Active tilting is possible through control technology with sensors, actuators, hydraulic and electric actuators.
6. The car body is rolled outwards during curve negotiation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The car body is rolled inwards during curve negotiation in order to reduce the lateral acceleration perceived by the passenger. A reduction of car body lateral acceleration through an increased track and car body tilt is associated with a slightly increased vertical acceleration.
7. What is the main feedback component of a bolster feedback system?
a) Controllers
b) Body
c) Actuator
d) Bogie accelerometer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bogie accelerometer is the main feedback component of a bolster feedback system. The accelerometer in Control system of tilting trains is used to measure lateral acceleration and provide negative feedback. Controllers, body and actuators are the part of the block diagram of the bolster feedback system.
8. By how much percentage is the tilt compensation factor multiplied in order to reduce the lateral acceleration of the car body?
a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 60%
Answer: a
Explanation: The accelerometer to the non-tilting part of the vehicle to measure how much tilt is needed to reduce the car body lateral acceleration to zero for that multiplied by tilt compensation factors by 100%.
9. Which type of forces are experienced by the passengers when the train passes through horizontal curves?
a) Centrifugal force
b) Lateral forces
c) Viscous force
d) Frictional force
Answer: b
Explanation: A train and its passengers are subjected to lateral forces when the train passes through horizontal curves. When a train goes into a curve, it produces substantial centrifugal force towards the outside of the curve by a force into the inner curve and passenger discomfort is reduced. Among the other forces mentioned, Frictional and Viscous forces are not experienced by the tilting train.
This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Design – Coin Counter”.
1. How does a coin counter system identify the denomination of coins?
a) Sensors
b) Transducers
c) DC motor
d) Electronic circuitry
Answer: a
Explanation: Coin counter accepts mixed denomination of coins. The system identifies the denomination of coins through sensors. Transducers are used to convert one form of a physical quantity to another. These are not used in the coin counters. DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk and the electronic circuitry is used to indicate the coins presented and the total value of coins.
2. The sensor output in a coin counter system is interfaced to ____
a) DC motor
b) Electronic circuitry
c) Feedback system
d) Graphical user interface
Answer: b
Explanation: The sensor output is to be interfaced to electronic circuitry that should indicate the number of coins presented and the total value of coins. DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. Feedback systems and graphical user interface are not a part of coin counters and these are generally used in the construction of CNC machines.
3. A multiplexed display is used to display the total values of the coins in a coin counter system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A multiplexed display is used to display the total values of the coins in a coin counter system. It generally indicates the number of coins presented and the total value of the coins.
4. The design of a coin counter system is divided into how many parts?
a) 5 parts
b) 2 parts
c) 1 part
d) 4 parts
Answer: b
Explanation: The design of a coin counter system is divided into two parts which are mechanical design and electrical design. The mechanical design contains components such as DC motor, funnel, hollow pipe, Angular presenter. The electronic parts consist of coin sensors, coin presenter, electronic counting device and other components.
5. What is the function of the DC motor in the coin counter system?
a) Feedback system
b) Rotating system
c) Sensing system
d) Driving system
Answer: b
Explanation: DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. As the disk rotates, the coin drops into a slot which contains an array of sensors which can read their attributes. The sensing system is used to determine the value of the coin. The feedback system and the driving systems are not a part of the coin counter system.
6. The features of the coin and the value of coin are determined by the well-designed sensing system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: As the weight, size and thickness of every coin are unique, these features of the coin and the value of coin are determined by the well-designed sensing system. The sensor output is further interfaced with electronic circuitry.
7. Which among the following are the parts of the mechanical design of the coin counter system?
a) DC motor
b) Coin presenter
c) Coin sensors
d) Electronic counting system
Answer: a
Explanation: DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. As the disk rotates, the coin drops into a slot which contains an array of sensors which can read their attributes. Coin presenter, electronic counting system and coin sensors are parts of the electronic design.
8. Which among the following are the parts of the electronic design of the coin counter system?
a) Angular presenter
b) DC motor
c) Electronic counting system
d) Funnel
Answer: c
Explanation: The electronic counting system is used to display the number of coins and it is a part of the electronic design in the coin counting system. Angular presenter, DC motor and Funnel are parts of a mechanical design system.
9. What is used for determining the combination of each different denominators?
a) Pair of phototransistor photodiode
b) Electronic counting system
c) Sensors
d) DC motor
Answer: a
Explanation: Pair of phototransistor photodiode is used for determining the combination of each different denominators. The electronic counting system is used to display the number of coins and it is a part of the electronic design in the coin counting system. Coin counter accepts mixed denomination of coins. The system identifies the denomination of coins through sensors. DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. As the disk rotates, the coin drops into a slot which contains an array of sensors which can read their attributes.
10. Which circuit is used for identification of coins?
a) Electronic counting system
b) Sequential logic circuit
c) Schmitt triggers
d) Coin sensors
Answer: b
Explanation: A sequential logic circuit is designed to identify the coin correctly. The electronic counting system is used to display the number of coins and it is a part of the electronic design in the coin counting system. Coin sensors are a part of the electronic design. The sensor output is converted into transistors logic signals by using Schmitt triggers, so the output can be compatible with electronic circuitry.
11. The sensor output is converted into transistors logic signals by using ____
a) Schmitt trigger
b) Pair of phototransistor photodiode
c) DC motor
d) Sensors
Answer: a
Explanation: The sensor output is converted into transistors logic signals by using Schmitt triggers, so the output can be compatible with electronic circuitry. For determining the combination of each different denominations, a set of phototransistor photodiode pair is used. DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. The system identifies the denomination of coins through sensors.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Design – Engine Management System”.
1. What is the full form of EMS?
a) Electronic management system
b) Engine management system
c) Engine management source
d) Electrical management system
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of EMS is the Engine management system. The engine management system consists of various electronics and electrical parts. Some of those parts are sensors, relays, actuators and engine control unit. All these parts work together to provide an EMS with vital data parameters that are essential to govern the various engine functions effectively.
2. What does ECU stand for?
a) Engine control unit
b) Electronic control unit
c) Engine communication unit
d) Electronic circuitry unit
Answer: a
Explanation: ECU stands for Engine unit control. It acts as a brain of the engine management system. The function of ECU is collecting, processing, analysing and executing the data received from various subsystems. The other options mentioned above, are not the correct full form of ECU.
3. The fuel supply of the engine in the engine management system is controlled by ____
a) ECU
b) Fuel injection system
c) Mechanical means
d) Pneumatic means
Answer: b
Explanation: The fuel injection system has a major role to control the engine’s fuel supply. The function of ECU is collecting, processing, analysing and executing the data received from various subsystems. The Mechanical means and Pneumatic means mentioned in the options are used to control the ignition timing and speed.
4. The engine management system consists of various electronics and electrical parts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The engine management system consists of various electronics and electrical parts. Some of those parts are sensors, relays, actuators and engine control unit.
5. The function of the engine control unit is ____
a) to collect, process, analyse and execute the data
b) to control injection timing
c) to control idle speed
d) to update program
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the engine control unit is to collect, process, analyse and execute the data. It acts as a brain of the engine management system. Mechanical means and Pneumatic means are used to control ignition timing and speed. PCB consist of software and microcontroller. We can update the programs by replacing the chips.
6. What does a PCB in an engine management system consists of?
a) Wheel
b) Microcontroller
c) Valves
d) Pumps
Answer: b
Explanation: PCB consists of software and a microcontroller. We can update the program by replacing the chips. Wheel, Valve and pumps are hardware parts and these are not the parts of an engine management system.
7. An Engine control system consists of a computer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Engine control system consists of a computer which uses a microchip to process the inputs from various engine sensors in real time. ECU consist of hardware and software PCB. PCB consist of software and a microcontroller. We can update the program by replacing the chips.
8. The data inputs are sent to the ECU by the means of ____
a) electrical signals
b) valves
c) channels
d) shafts
Answer: a
Explanation: All the engine sensors send data inputs by the means of electrical signals to engine control unit which in turn controls various actuators, ignition timings, variable valve timing etc. Valves, Channels and shafts are not used to transfer energy in engine management systems.
9. Which kind of effect is seen in thermocouples?
a) Ferranti effect
b) Corona effect
c) See beck effect
d) Heating effect
Answer: c
Explanation: A kind of effect seen in thermocouples is see beck effect. In the other options, ferranti and corona effects are the effects caused in power electronics and the heating effect is caused due to electric current and these are therefore not a perfect choice.
10. Which of the following is not a part of the engine control unit?
a) Engine temperature sensor
b) Electronic counting system
c) Ignition circuits
d) Cam position sensors
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the following options, engine temperature sensor, ignition circuits, cam position sensors are the parts of the engine control unit. The electric counting system is not a part of the engine control unit and used in coin counters.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Design – Autonomous Mobile System”.
1. Which organisation has developed “ZENBO”, the non-humanoid robot?
a) Asus
b) Qihan Technology
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
Answer: a
Explanation: ZENBO is developed by Asus. Asus is a company in Taiwan, famous for its cell phone technology. “Zenbo” is a healthcare assistant which can be paired with all home automation devices with an additional ability to interact with humans.
2. Which is the first robot to understand human emotions?
a) Eskimo
b) Walker
c) Asimo
d) Pepper
Answer: d
Explanation: Pepper is the first robot to understand human emotions. Pepper is a social robot developed by Softbank who is capable of understanding human emotions, talk and assist them and can even dance.
3. How many ultrasonic sensors are present in Tesla Model S?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 20
Answer: b
Explanation: 12 ultrasonic sensors are present in Tesla Model S. Tesla Model S is a self driven car with a forward radar, camera and digitally controlled electric assist braking system. It can monitor and sense the objects in surroundings up to a radius of 16 feet radius.
4. Which among the following robot is being made for deep space research and can be sent to mars?
a) Eskimo
b) Zenbo
c) Valkyrie
d) Pepper
Answer: c
Explanation: Valkyrie is being made for deep space research and can be sent to mars. Valkyrie is developed by NASA in association with the university of Edinburgh. It is said to based for building safer habitats on mars.
5. Which among the following is an autonomous flying drone?
a) Foster-Miller TALON
b) Zenbo
c) Valkyrie
d) PARC
Answer: d
Explanation: PARC is an autonomous flying. PARC is an abbreviation of persistent aerial reconnaissance and communications. It fulfils wide variety of security, surveillance and business needs.
6. “NEXT TWO” is an autonomous vehicle developed by “RENAULT”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: NEXT TWO is an autonomous vehicle developed by “RENAULT”. RENAULT’s NEXT TWO is self driven car that can sense and interpret the environment and is also equipped with advanced driver assistance systems.
7. Which among the following robot is made for serving the military?
a) Foster-Miller TALON
b) Zenbo
c) Valkyrie
d) Pepper
Answer: a
Explanation: Foster-Miller TALON is an unmanned robot is made for serving the military. It is made by a United States company Qinetiq-NA. It is one among the most agile and fastest military robot that can run on sand, snow and even water.
8. Which among the following is an autonomous robot made for rescuing and searching purpose?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Pepper
Answer: c
Explanation: Nova 5 is an autonomous robot made for rescuing and searching purpose. It is an intelligent searching robot developed by Fady and Sami Khaled. It uses AI technology for interpreting the surrounding and perform searching operation.
9. Which among the following is an unmanned tank that can be controlled remotely?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Ripsaw M5
Answer: d
Explanation: Ripsaw M5 is an unmanned tank that can be controlled remotely. It is a robotic combat tank that will be used for serving the US military purpose. It has been developed by the team Ripsaw.
10. Which among the following is an autonomous delivery vehicle?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Nuro R2
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuro R2 is an autonomous delivery vehicle. It is developed by the company Nuro. This self driven delivery vehicle was granted exemption by the transport department of Us to test it on public roads.
11. Who invented first self driven car?
a) Gruebler owen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Norman Bel Geddes
d) Walther Bothe
Answer: c
Explanation: Norman Bel Geddes invented first self driven car. It was a electric car that was guided with the radio controlled electromagnetic waves which was generated by the metal pieces that were laid on the roadway.
12. Which among the following is Cargo bot which is used for carrying things?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Gita
Answer: d
Explanation: Gita is Cargo robot which is used for carrying things. It is designed by the company Piaggio. It is made as a helping hand for the people which can be taken at any public place and can carry large amount of one’s personnel stuffs.
13. Which among the following is a non humanoid social robot which resembles a dog?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Aibo
d) Zenbo
Answer: c
Explanation: “Aibo” is a non humanoid social robot which resembles a dog. Aibo is a robot dog developed by the company “sony”. It was originally developed in the year 1998 which was further advanced as the years passed by.
14. The non humanoid social robot “Paro” resembles which animal?
a) Parrot
b) Seal
c) Dog
d) Cat
Answer: b
Explanation: The non humanoid social robot “Paro” resembles a seal. It is a therapeutic robot that resembles a baby seal. It is made cute and adorable in order to spread calming effect on patients at hospitals or anywhere.
15. Which organisation has developed “SANBOT”?
a) Google
b) Qihan Technology
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
Answer: b
Explanation: SANBOT is developed by Qihan Technology. It is perfect for the retail environment. It can interact with people and can also present its own views using its front screen and also has an inbuilt projector.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Design – Autonomous Mobile System”.
1. What is the function of an Anti-lock braking system?
a) Used for car parking
b) To maintain tractive force
c) Programming the system
d) To drive the car
Answer: b
Explanation: Tractive force used to generate motion between a body and a tangential surface. Antilock brake system maintains the tractive force between the wheel and road surface. The other options mentioned are not the functions of the antilock brake systems.
2. The skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided through _______
a) antilock braking system
b) engine management system
c) automatic car parking system
d) driving system
Answer: a
Explanation: The uncontrolled skidding of vehicles while sudden brakes are applied is avoided through an antilock braking system. Antilock brake system increases control over the vehicle and also decreases the stopping distance on the dry and slippery surfaces.
3. The Anti-lock brake system supports electronic stability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Antilock lock brake system has some special capabilities like electronic stability control, emergency brake assist and electronic brake force distribution. The uncontrolled skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided through an antilock braking system.
4. What is the function of the Electronic control unit in Anti-lock braking system?
a) Monitoring the speed of the wheel
b) Decreases the stopping distance
c) Provides electronic stability control
d) Maintaining the tractive force
Answer: a
Explanation: The electronic control unit constantly monitors the rotational speed of each wheel. If it detects a wheel rotating significantly slower than the other wheels then that condition indicates of impending wheel locks. The other options mentioned ate the functions of an antilock brake system but not particularly the function of ECU.
5. What detects the fault in the anti-lock brake system?
a) ECU
b) Pump
c) Valves
d) Sensors
Answer: a
Explanation: The fault detection in an electronic brake system is possible by fault code diagnosis through Electronic control unit. The pump, valves and sensors are the other parts of the anti-lock brake system but these are not specifically used for fault detection.
6. The Electronic control unit is used to detect the speed of wheels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Electronic control unit detects if the speed of any wheel is faster than the speed of another wheel and accordingly the pressure on the hydraulic brake is increased or decreased.
7. Which part of the antilock brake system is used to find the acceleration and deceleration of the wheel?
a) Valves
b) ECU
c) Speed sensors
d) Pumps
Answer: c
Explanation: We can sense the speed of the vehicle and find the acceleration and deceleration through the speed sensors. The Electronic control unit detects if the speed of any wheel is faster than the speed of another wheel and accordingly the pressure on the hydraulic brake is increased or decreased. Valves are used to pass pressure from hydraulic cylinder towards brakes and Pumps are used to restore pressure. The electronic control unit constantly monitors the rotational speed of each wheel.
8. Which device is used to pass the pressure from hydraulic cylinder towards brake?
a) Valves
b) Pumps
c) Sensors
d) ECU
Answer: a
Explanation: Valves are used to pass the pressure from hydraulic cylinder towards brake. When the valve is closed, then it isolates the break from the hydraulic cylinder. Thus, they control the pressure supplied to the brakes. The function of Pump in the automatic brake system is to restore pressure to the hydraulic brake after the valves have released it.
9. What is the function of Pump in an automatic brake system?
a) For fault detection
b) To sense the speed of the vehicle
c) To restore pressure
d) To find the acceleration and deceleration
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of Pump in the automatic brake system is to restore pressure to the hydraulic brake after the valves have released it. The controller sends the signals to the pump to start or stop depending upon the pressure in Hydraulic cylinders.
10. The breaking valves are actuated and turned on and off through ___________
a) pumps
b) valves
c) sensors
d) modulator
Answer: d
Explanation: The breaking valves are actuated and turned on and off through Modulator. Electronic control unit decides the brake force and activates automatic brake system modulator which actuates the breaking valves on and off.
This set of Mechatronics Question Bank focuses on “Mechatronics System Future Trends”.
1. Which is the first robot to ride bicycle like humans?
a) Eskimo
b) Ansino
c) Asimo
d) Primer V2
Answer: d
Explanation: Primer V2 is the first robot to ride bicycle like humans. It is developed by a Japanese robotics engineer, “Masahiko Yamaguchi”. It is a miniature robot that replicated the exact human style of riding a bicycle.
2. When was the term “Mechatronics” first coined?
a) 2010
b) 1871
c) 1971
d) 2001
Answer: c
Explanation: The term “Mechatronics” first coined in the year 1971. It was coined by “Tetsuro Mori”. It was also the trademark of the “Yasakawa Electric Corporation” for few years. Mechatronics is an interdisciplinary branch which is compiled of mechanical, electrical, robotics and many other branches.
3. Who made the first vehicle application of eddy current braking system?
a) Vishwas Rai
b) Paul Hemelton
c) Derulo Sarazin
d) Raoul Sarazin
Answer: d
Explanation: Raoul Sarazin made the first vehicle which used eddy current braking system. They are also referred as “Electromechanical brakes”. They apply electromagnetic force to provide mechanical resistance and stop or slow down the vehicle.
4. Electromagnetic brakes do not wear and tear.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnetic brakes do not wear and tear. These brakes can be thought of as future of braking system as they don’t rely on any shoe brakes rather they use electromagnetic force for slowing down the vehicle. This reduces the disadvantage of wearing out of the traditional braking surfaces.
5. Electromagnetic brakes do not work if power supply gets interrupted.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnetic brakes do not work if power supply gets interrupted. These brakes can be thought of as future of braking system but they come with huge disadvantages. These brakes cannot carry out its functions properly if the temperature increases as permanent magnets loses its magnetic property at higher temperatures.
6. “Alexa Echo” made by the company “Amazon” has artificial intelligence.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: “Alexa Echo” made by the company “Amazon” has artificial intelligence. It is an assistant that can help you out with your daily routines. These assistants are made with machine learning models that can learn from its past experiences.
7. Who invented the robot “primer V2”?
a) Vishwas Rai
b) Paul Hemelton
c) Masahiko Yamaguchi
d) Raoul Sarazin
Answer: c
Explanation: “Masahiko Yamaguchi” invented the robot “primer V2”. Primer V2 is a miniature robot that can ride a mini bicycle. This robot mimics the human style of riding a bicycle. It paddles the bicycle itself instead of using any motor for the movement.
8. Which braking system is called as vacuum assisted braking system?
a) Electromagnetic braking system
b) Servo braking system
c) Disc brakes
d) Elevator braking system
Answer: b
Explanation: Servo braking system is called as vacuum assisted braking system. These types of brakes are used in most of the cars today. They have almost replaced the use of traditional drum brakes in cars. These vacuum assisted brakes work when engine of the car is turned ON.
9. What is the full form of “ABS” in terms of modern vehicle brakes?
a) Advanced Braking System
b) Anti-Lock Braking System
c) Assisted Braking System
d) Advanced Backing System
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of “ABS” in terms of modern vehicle brakes is Anti-Lock Braking System. These are modern type of braking system that prevents the vehicle from skidding. This system smoothens the process of braking and reduces sudden locking of wheels.
10. Google maps do not use artificial intelligence.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Google maps do use artificial intelligence. It is a smart map that can help the user by finding the shortest and easiest route possible to reach at the destination. They analyses different routes its traffic, its shortest path, and then calculates the expected time it will take to reach the destination.
